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NDA 1 2025 GAT Question Paper with Solutions

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Questions.

Directions · Q1 to Q5

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct option from the given options, based solely on the passage. Mark your answer on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Passage · Q1 to Q5

An attempt to determine the number of languages in the world is affected by other factors. A few new languages do continue to be discovered, even these days, as unexplored regions of the world begin to be opened up. The discovery does not usually take place straight away. Often there are similarities with an already known language which make the investigators assume that what they have found is just a dialect of that language. Only after a considerable period of contact does it transpire that the speech is so different that it has to be considered a different language. It takes a language survey to establish the facts, and there are still many countries where such surveys are incomplete or have not even begun. The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be. Because many such peoples are bilingual or multilingual, and converse with outsiders in lingua franca, it may take a while before linguists come to realize that there is an ethnic language there at all.

Q1

Which one of the following is NOT the reason for the difficulty in estimating the number of languages of the world?

  1. (a) New languages continue to be discovered
  2. (b) There are still unexplored regions
  3. (c) New languages are considered a dialect of a known language
  4. (d) People who speak the language do not claim their language
Answer and solution
Q2

Which one of the following is a way to establish the discovery of a new language?

  1. (a) By establishing contact over a period of time with the speakers of the language
  2. (b) By finding the similarities of the language with other languages
  3. (c) By comparing with the lingua franca of the region
  4. (d) By conducting a survey of all languages of the region
Answer and solution
Q3

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) Language surveys have been conducted by all nations
  2. (b) There is hardly any language to be discovered in the world
  3. (c) All the languages are either complete languages or dialects of other major languages
  4. (d) No new language needs to be discovered since all languages are known to the world
Answer and solution
Q4

“The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be,” means:

  1. (a) People are recognised as different ethnic groups but not necessarily their language
  2. (b) People are recognised as different ethnic groups and their language is recognised
  3. (c) People are not recognised as different ethnic groups, and so are their languages
  4. (d) Because the people are not from different ethnic groups and their language is recognised
Answer and solution
Q5

Which one of the following words from passage means ‘come to be known’?

  1. (a) transpire
  2. (b) lingua franca
  3. (c) straight
  4. (d) variant
Answer and solution

Directions · Q6 to Q8

The following items have a sentence in direct or indirect speech with four options. One of the options converts the direct or indirect speech into indirect or direct correctly. Select the correct option and mark your response on the Answer Sheet.

Q6

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech:

Charu said to her friend, “I want you to be here at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.”

  1. (a) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting
  2. (b) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
  3. (c) Charu requested her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
  4. (d) Charu told her friend that she will want her to be here at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting
Answer and solution
Q7

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech:

Nitin said to his brother, “What a beautiful painting it is ?”

  1. (a) Nitin wondered to his brother that what a beautiful painting it was
  2. (b) Nitin wondered before his brother that it was a beautiful painting
  3. (c) Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting
  4. (d) Nitin asked his brother whether it was beautiful painting
Answer and solution
Q8

Convert from indirect speech to direct speech:

The teacher asked her students why they had been quiet in the previous class.

  1. (a) The teacher asked her students, “Why were they keeping quiet in the previous class?”
  2. (b) The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in the previous class?”
  3. (c) The teacher said to her students, “Why had you been quiet in the previous class?”
  4. (d) The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in previous class?”
Answer and solution

Directions · Q9 to Q10

Following items have four sentences, one of which is correct. Find the correct option and mark your response in the Answer Sheet.

Q9

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  1. (a) He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country
  2. (b) He is considered as one among the brightest intellectual in the country
  3. (c) He is considered as one among the brighter intellectual in the country
  4. (d) He is considered as one of the intellectual in the country
Answer and solution
Q10

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  1. (a) No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas
  2. (b) No other mountain is tall than the Himalayas
  3. (c) No other mountains taller than the Himalayas
  4. (d) No other mountain is taller then the Himalayas
Answer and solution

Directions · Q11 to Q15

In the following items, a pair of words is provided. You are required to select the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q11

Confident and Confidant

  1. (a) Confident means certain and confidant means close friend
  2. (b) Confidant means certain and confident means close friend
  3. (c) Confident means belief and confidant means an emissary
  4. (d) Confident means assurance and confidant means intimate person
Answer and solution
Q12

Broke and brook

  1. (a) Broke means abundance and brook means a flowing water body
  2. (b) Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream
  3. (c) Broke means fractured and brook means nonsense
  4. (d) Broke means negotiate and brook means a stream
Answer and solution
Q13

Accept and Except

  1. (a) Accept means apart from and except means recognise
  2. (b) Accept means recognise and except means include
  3. (c) Accept means consent and except means apart from
  4. (d) Accept means allude and except means apart from
Answer and solution
Q14

Accord and Accrued

  1. (a) Accord means collected and accrued means agreement
  2. (b) Accord means agreement and accrued means arrived
  3. (c) Accord means accepted and accrued means received
  4. (d) Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated
Answer and solution
Q15

Guarantee and Warranty

  1. (a) Guarantee is an agreement and warranty is a service contract
  2. (b) Guarantee is a business agreement and warranty is a service contract
  3. (c) Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract
  4. (d) Guarantee is acceptance and warranty is a service contract
Answer and solution

Directions · Q16 to Q20

In the following items a sentence or a phrase is given with a word that is underlined, followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q16

The Constitution of India ensures proportionate representation from all regions.

  1. (a) balanced
  2. (b) partial
  3. (c) unlikely
  4. (d) suffragette
Answer and solution
Q17

There is a feeling of disenchantment among the members of the group.

  1. (a) delight
  2. (b) disappointment
  3. (c) idealism
  4. (d) unrelenting
Answer and solution
Q18

She believed that it was imminent that he would be chosen as the leader of the group.

  1. (a) timely
  2. (b) distant
  3. (c) unlikely
  4. (d) inevitable
Answer and solution
Q19

The brave soldiers left an indelible impression on the people of the land.

  1. (a) permanent
  2. (b) fleeting
  3. (c) hilarious
  4. (d) eradicable
Answer and solution
Q20

The manager always provides instantaneous replies to all queries.

  1. (a) immediate
  2. (b) delayed
  3. (c) deliberate
  4. (d) unwanted
Answer and solution

Directions · Q21 to Q25

In this section each item consists of six sentences that comprise a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The sequence of the middle four sentences has been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the answer sheet.

Q21

S1: Although all sources of energy ultimately come from natural processes, non-renewable resources cannot be replaced naturally at the rate they are being used.

S6: The sustainable use of natural resources in a manner that provides the maximum benefit of these resources to humans over a period of time can be termed as conservation.

P: This will increase the time and cost of mining and once these resources are used up they cannot be replaced.

Q: Hence, we must remember that though our country is rich in mineral deposits these resources are short-lived.

R: Extraction of these ores through the process of mining will soon become difficult and very expensive because these minerals have to be mined from greater depths over time.

S: Mineral resources can be said to be finite and non-renewable.

  1. (a) QPRS
  2. (b) SPQR
  3. (c) SQRP
  4. (d) SQPR
Answer and solution
Q22

S1: India, at present, has one of the largest road networks in the world.

S6: It passes through Howrah, Delhi and Amritsar and terminates in Kabul (Afghanistan).

P: The importance of roads has been recognised in India since the ancient times.

Q: The Grand Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri across the Indo-Gangetic plain, from Chittagong (Bangladesh) to Peshawar (Pakistan).

R: Kings such as Ashoka and Chandragupta built roads for easy transportation of goods and people.

S: Construction of roads continued as an important activity in the late medieval period.

  1. (a) QPRS
  2. (b) SPQR
  3. (c) PQRS
  4. (d) PRSQ
Answer and solution
Q23

S1: National highways connect one state with another and are of national importance.

S6: These road systems are also known as primary road systems and are laid and operated under the supervision of the National Highway Authority of India.

P: They are important because whereas they constitute merely two per cent of the total road networks, they nevertheless carry 40 per cent of the total road traffic.

Q: The road infrastructure of the country is therefore crucial, and their construction and maintenance is of critical importance.

R: They bear the load of traffic because these roads connect long distances and pass through major cities and towns.

S: Since they cover the length and breadth of the nation and connect cities and towns, these highways are the primary facilitators of trade and connectivity.

  1. (a) PRSQ
  2. (b) SPQR
  3. (c) PRQS
  4. (d) SQRP
Answer and solution
Q24

S1: The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996.

S6: A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the Constitution.

P: Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid Government.

Q: The South African Constitution says that its “Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa.”

R: Apropos, it forbids discrimination on the grounds of “race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth”.

S: The Bill of Rights grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens.

  1. (a) QSRP
  2. (b) SPQR
  3. (c) PQRS
  4. (d) PQSR
Answer and solution
Q25

S1: Our Constitution reminds us of the necessity of representation in a large democracy.

S6: Elections have today become the most visible symbol of the democratic process.

P: This is why elections become important.

Q: Therefore representatives are elected by the people.

R: Whenever we think of India as a democracy, our mind invariably turns to our successful elections.

S: All citizens cannot participate in taking every decision.

  1. (a) QSRP
  2. (b) SPQR
  3. (c) PQSR
  4. (d) SQPR
Answer and solution

Directions · Q26 to Q35

Given below are sentences that use discourse markers/expressions to make them complete. Identify the most appropriate discourse marker/expression and mark your answer accordingly in the Answer Sheet:

Q26

________ your transfer request is concerned, we’ll be discussing it at the next meeting.

  1. (a) As far as
  2. (b) To begin with
  3. (c) By the way
  4. (d) Talking about
Answer and solution
Q27

________, did you know Ravi has a new job?

  1. (a) For one thing
  2. (b) By the way
  3. (c) In the first place
  4. (d) As a result
Answer and solution
Q28

________ the wind, it was getting stronger, and I was getting colder.

  1. (a) To begin with
  2. (b) By the way
  3. (c) First of all
  4. (d) Speaking of
Answer and solution
Q29

________, what are you doing in my room?

  1. (a) On the other hand
  2. (b) Excuse me
  3. (c) Look there
  4. (d) Eventually
Answer and solution
Q30

________ an unhappy childhood leads to criminal behaviour.

  1. (a) Still if
  2. (b) Even somewhat
  3. (c) In some cases
  4. (d) In progression
Answer and solution
Q31

________, the problem is nothing but a wrong assumption about processes.

  1. (a) In the meanwhile
  2. (b) Somewhat
  3. (c) Engagingly
  4. (d) In other words
Answer and solution
Q32

Many, ________, hesitate to publicly broach such question for fear of nurturing discrimination.

  1. (a) understandably
  2. (b) despite
  3. (c) until
  4. (d) of course
Answer and solution
Q33

________, one notes that in the nineteenth century an important development of reflection and questioning gained momentum.

  1. (a) Particularly speaking
  2. (b) Generally speaking
  3. (c) Otherwise
  4. (d) Of course
Answer and solution
Q34

________, the situation has completely transformed over the past few years.

  1. (a) Somewhat
  2. (b) Believably
  3. (c) Thus
  4. (d) Predominantly
Answer and solution
Q35

________, the committee is of the opinion that all academic matters will be discussed in the Executive Body Meeting.

  1. (a) Hence
  2. (b) But
  3. (c) Later
  4. (d) Although
Answer and solution

Directions · Q36 to Q40

Given below are words, followed by their appropriate meaning. Identify the correct meaning and mark your answer accordingly in the Answer Sheet.

Q36

Cynosure:

  1. (a) Person or thing that causes a change
  2. (b) Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention
  3. (c) Person or thing regarded as exact copy
  4. (d) Person or animal that lives in a particular place
Answer and solution
Q37

Coeval:

  1. (a) Person of roughly the same age
  2. (b) Person or organisation that cooperates with others
  3. (c) Person employed to drive a private car
  4. (d) Person employed in taking census
Answer and solution
Q38

Retrogression:

  1. (a) Sudden sharp drop in price
  2. (b) Reverse pressure
  3. (c) Return to earlier state
  4. (d) Sudden occurrence of a past event
Answer and solution
Q39

Imprest:

  1. (a) Surprise attack by people
  2. (b) Money used to manage small expenses
  3. (c) Sudden occurrence of laughter
  4. (d) Sudden increase in activity
Answer and solution
Q40

Turgid:

  1. (a) Determined or loyal
  2. (b) Dirty or untidy
  3. (c) Swollen or distended
  4. (d) Excited or upset
Answer and solution

Directions · Q41 to Q45

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. The parts are rearranged in four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to select the most appropriate option that sequences the parts correctly and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q41

P: participate in the function

Q: many of the people who had come to

R: the auditorium was over-crowded

S: could not find a seat because

  1. (a) PRQS
  2. (b) PQRS
  3. (c) QPSR
  4. (d) SPRQ
Answer and solution
Q42

P: lay outside her existing life

Q: she knew that the answer

R: somewhere in the back of her mind

S: to her questions about life

  1. (a) RPQS
  2. (b) QSPR
  3. (c) QPSR
  4. (d) RQSP
Answer and solution
Q43

P: works of literature

Q: inside the pages of all good

R: lies the truth about some of

S: the more challenging questions posed by humanity

  1. (a) PRQS
  2. (b) QPRS
  3. (c) QPSR
  4. (d) RPSQ
Answer and solution
Q44

P: takes on account of its economic successes

Q: to address continuing social inequality

R: for every stride of progress any nation

S: it takes two back if it is unable

  1. (a) PRQS
  2. (b) QPRS
  3. (c) RPSQ
  4. (d) RPQS
Answer and solution
Q45

P: the book-value of a loan or

Q: an intangible asset over a set period of time

R: used to periodically lower

S: amortisation is an accounting technique

  1. (a) SRPQ
  2. (b) RSPQ
  3. (c) SRQP
  4. (d) RPSQ
Answer and solution

Directions · Q46 to Q50

The following items have a blank space followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q46

There is more than ________ to get the job done.

  1. (a) one way
  2. (b) one ways
  3. (c) any ways
  4. (d) any way
Answer and solution
Q47

The class decided to organise ________.

  1. (a) picnic
  2. (b) a picnic
  3. (c) picnics
  4. (d) the picnic
Answer and solution
Q48

The accused ________ before the judge.

  1. (a) tried
  2. (b) was trial
  3. (c) sat trial
  4. (d) stood trial
Answer and solution
Q49

The manner in which the demolitions have been carried out ________ scrutiny by the High Court.

  1. (a) was under
  2. (b) under
  3. (c) is under
  4. (d) however under
Answer and solution
Q50

I ________ consider the opinions of all stakeholders before taking a final decision.

  1. (a) will not
  2. (b) have
  3. (c) will
  4. (d) shall
Answer and solution
Q51

Which of the following main industry/industries was/were developed in the second industrial revolution that took place after about 1850?

  1. (a) Coal and iron
  2. (b) Cotton spinning and weaving
  3. (c) Chemical and electrical
  4. (d) Steam engines
Answer and solution
Q52

Which among the following materials was used in making the Harappan seals?

  1. (a) Sandstone
  2. (b) Lapis lazuli
  3. (c) Jasper
  4. (d) Steatite
Answer and solution
Q53

Which one among the following mahajanapadas in ancient India was an oligarchy?

  1. (a) Vajji
  2. (b) Kosala
  3. (c) Gandhara
  4. (d) Magadha
Answer and solution
Q54

Which one of the following sculptures found at Sanchi Stupa is NOT directly inspired by Buddhist ideas?

  1. (a) Empty seat
  2. (b) Shalbhanjika
  3. (c) Tree
  4. (d) Wheel
Answer and solution
Q55

In British India, which one among the following Acts permitted detention without trial for up to two years?

  1. (a) Regulating Act, 1773
  2. (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919
  3. (c) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
  4. (d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer and solution
Q56

Which one of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement is correct?

  1. (a) The target was to get one-sixth of cultivable land in India as donation
  2. (b) It was approved through a Central Government Act
  3. (c) It was ensured that the donated land was free from all litigation
  4. (d) The first donation of land was in Bihar
Answer and solution
Q57

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act provides for

  1. (a) an elaborate system of establishing municipal self-government
  2. (b) an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government
  3. (c) establishing a Commission for Linguistic Minorities
  4. (d) the creation of the Jharkhand State
Answer and solution
Q58

BHARATPOL portal has been developed by

  1. (a) The Election Commission of India
  2. (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation
  3. (c) The Enforcement Directorate
  4. (d) The Securities and Exchange Board of India
Answer and solution
Q59

Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?

  1. (a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
  2. (b) The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among the members of the Rajya Sabha
  3. (c) The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five year term
  4. (d) The members of Lok Sabha also vote in the election of the members of Rajya Sabha
Answer and solution
Q60

Which one among the following does NOT figure among the Five Principles of Panchsheel?

  1. (a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
  2. (b) Equality and mutual benefit
  3. (c) Peaceful coexistence
  4. (d) Nuclear non-proliferation
Answer and solution
Q61

Maize (makka) was introduced into India in the seventeenth century via

  1. (a) Portugal
  2. (b) Africa and Spain
  3. (c) China and Mongolia
  4. (d) Turkey
Answer and solution
Q62

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Five Year Plan)

A. Fifth Five Year Plan

B. Seventh Five Year Plan

C. Ninth Five Year Plan

D. Eleventh Five Year Plan

List II (Objective)

  1. Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth

  2. Garibi Hatao (Removal of Poverty)

  3. Food, Work and Productivity

  4. Growth with Social Justice and Equality

Code (A B C D):

  1. (a) 1 4 3 2
  2. (b) 2 3 4 1
  3. (c) 2 4 3 1
  4. (d) 1 3 4 2
Answer and solution
Q63

Which of the following statements about Srimanta Shankardeva is/are correct?

  1. In the late fifteenth century Shankardeva emerged as one of the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam

  2. He was the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism

  3. His teachings are known as Bhagavati Dharma

  4. He encouraged the establishment of satra and naam ghar

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and solution
Q64

At which one among the following places did the British East India Company found its factory in the year 1611?

  1. (a) Madras
  2. (b) Masulipatam
  3. (c) Bombay
  4. (d) Balasore
Answer and solution
Q65

Chronologically arrange the following political events related to Indian National Movement beginning from the earliest:

  1. Formation of Swaraj Party

  2. Communal Award

  3. Lucknow Pact

  4. Simla Conference

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
  2. (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
  3. (c) 2, 1, 4, 3
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer and solution
Q66

Which among the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta for Europeans, their employees and the citizens of India?

  1. (a) The Regulating Act of 1773
  2. (b) The Charter Act of 1793
  3. (c) The Charter Act of 1813
  4. (d) Government of India Act of 1858
Answer and solution
Q67

Who, among the following, has introduced a resolution in 1882 which is also called the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India?

  1. (a) Lord Macaulay
  2. (b) Lord Canning
  3. (c) Lord Ripon
  4. (d) Lord William Bentinck
Answer and solution
Q68

Which one of the following terms is associated with the practice of Sufism?

  1. (a) Jizya
  2. (b) Ijma
  3. (c) Muqaddam
  4. (d) Murid
Answer and solution
Q69

Consider the following features:

  1. Consent of the governed

  2. Political equality

  3. Accountability of the ruled to the ruler

Which of the above feature/features outline democratic rule?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q70

Placing the earliest first, arrange the following countries in the chronological order in which they granted universal adult franchise:

  1. USA

  2. Sri Lanka

  3. Japan

  4. India

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
  3. (c) 1, 3, 4, 2
  4. (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Answer and solution
Q71

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. (a) The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids
  2. (b) The molecules of soap contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends
  3. (c) Detergents are more effective than soaps in hard water
  4. (d) In micelles the ionic-end of the molecules is towards oil droplet while the other end faces outside
Answer and solution
Q72

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) A neutron is formed by combination of an electron and a proton. Therefore, it is neutral
  2. (b) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of a proton
  3. (c) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of goiter
  4. (d) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only neutrons
Answer and solution
Q73

Which one of the following particles in the nucleus of an atom was discovered by J. Chadwick?

  1. (a) Electron
  2. (b) Proton
  3. (c) Positron
  4. (d) Neutron
Answer and solution
Q74

Which one of the following findings is NOT observed in Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of Atom?

  1. (a) There is a neutral centre in an atom called nucleus
  2. (b) Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus
  3. (c) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path
  4. (d) The size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom
Answer and solution
Q75

Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2XCl_{2}, which is a solid with high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of periodic table as

  1. (a) Na
  2. (b) Al
  3. (c) Mg
  4. (d) K
Answer and solution
Q76

Which one of the following oxides is a neutral oxide?

  1. (a) COCO
  2. (b) CO2CO_{2}
  3. (c) Na2ONa_{2}O
  4. (d) MgOMgO
Answer and solution
Q77

Which one of the following is also known as Dry ice in its solid form?

  1. (a) SiO2SiO_{2}
  2. (b) CO2CO_{2}
  3. (c) CaOCaO
  4. (d) MgOMgO
Answer and solution
Q78

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. (a) A scale measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is called pH scale
  2. (b) The higher the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, higher is its pH
  3. (c) We can measure pH generally from 0 to 14 on a pH scale
  4. (d) The ‘p’ in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German meaning power
Answer and solution
Q79

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. (a) Half mole of nitrogen gas is measured 11.2 litre at STP
  2. (b) 17 gram of ammonia gas contains 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23} molecules at STP
  3. (c) 22.4 litre of CO2CO_{2} gas at STP contains 44 gram of molecules
  4. (d) 4 gram of hydrogen gas contains 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23} molecules
Answer and solution
Q80

Which one of the following statements about a compound is NOT correct?

  1. (a) A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements, chemically combined in a fixed proportion
  2. (b) Properties of a compound are different from its constituent elements
  3. (c) A compound is an impure substance
  4. (d) The constituents of a compound can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical reactions
Answer and solution
Q81

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Chemical Name)

A. Washing soda

B. Baking soda

C. Bleaching powder

D. Gypsum

List II (Chemical Formula)

  1. CaOCl2CaOCl_{2}

  2. NaHCO3NaHCO_{3}

  3. Na2CO3⋅10H2ONa_{2}CO_{3} \cdot 10H_{2}O

  4. CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_{4} \cdot 2H_{2}O

Code (A B C D):

  1. (a) 4 2 1 3
  2. (b) 4 1 2 3
  3. (c) 3 1 2 4
  4. (d) 3 2 1 4
Answer and solution
Q82

Which one of the following nitrogen oxides may dimerize?

  1. (a) N2ON_{2}O
  2. (b) NO2NO_{2}
  3. (c) N2O3N_{2}O_{3}
  4. (d) N2O5N_{2}O_{5}
Answer and solution
Q83

Which one of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction reactions is NOT correct?

  1. (a) If a substance loses hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
  2. (b) If a substance loses oxygen during reaction, it is reduced
  3. (c) If a substance gains hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
  4. (d) If a substance gains oxygen during reaction, it is oxidized
Answer and solution
Q84

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Physical Quantity)

A. Temperature

B. Weight

C. Mass

D. Pressure

List II (SI Unit)

  1. Kelvin

  2. Kilogram

  3. Pascal

  4. Newton

Code (A B C D):

  1. (a) 1 2 4 3
  2. (b) 3 4 2 1
  3. (c) 1 4 2 3
  4. (d) 3 2 4 1
Answer and solution
Q85

For acid rain, the pH of rain water should be less than

  1. (a) 7.0
  2. (b) 6.6
  3. (c) 5.6
  4. (d) 8.0
Answer and solution
Q86

Consider the following lines of Longitude and Latitude :

  1. Prime Meridian

  2. Tropic of Cancer

  3. Equator

Which of the above lines is/are a Great Circle ?

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q87

Which of the following is the correct ascending order of the given minerals in terms of their presence in the Earth’s crust ?

  1. Amphibolite

  2. Mica

  3. Pyroxene

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 2, 3, 1
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3
  3. (c) 2, 1, 3
  4. (d) 1, 3, 2
Answer and solution
Q88

Which of the following is/are the applied forces in mechanical weathering process ?

  1. Gravitational force

  2. Expansion force

  3. Force due to water pressure

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q89

Which of the following is/are cold ocean current/currents ?

  1. Alaska Current

  2. North Atlantic Drift

  3. West Wind Drift

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2
  3. (c) 2 and 3
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q90

Which one of the following latitudes will experience a minimum angle of the Sun’s rays when it is Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere ?

  1. (a) Arctic Circle
  2. (b) Equator
  3. (c) Tropic of Cancer
  4. (d) Tropic of Capricorn
Answer and solution
Q91

Which of the following statements with reference to Coriolis force is/are correct ?

  1. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force

  2. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q92

Which of the following statements with reference to Sleet is/are correct ?

  1. Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water

  2. It occurs when a layer of air with the temperature below freezing point overlies a warm layer near the ground surface

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q93

Humid Subtropical Climate is NOT experienced in which one among the following regions ?

  1. (a) Coastal South Africa
  2. (b) East coast of Australia
  3. (c) South Japan
  4. (d) South Argentina
Answer and solution
Q94

Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states ?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Telangana
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer and solution
Q95

Temperate forests of South India, known as ‘Sholas’ are found in which of the following hills ?

  1. Anaimalai

  2. Nilgiris

  3. Palani

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q96

As per the Annual Report 2023-24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following states are the major producer of Copper in the country ?

  1. (a) Rajasthan and Gujarat
  2. (b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Jharkhand and Rajasthan
  4. (d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Answer and solution
Q97

Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat ?

  1. (a) Ankaleshwar
  2. (b) Kosamba
  3. (c) Mehsana
  4. (d) Moran
Answer and solution
Q98

As per the Land Revenue Records, any land is categorized as Culturable Waste-Land if it is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than

  1. (a) 2 years
  2. (b) 3 years
  3. (c) 4 years
  4. (d) 5 years
Answer and solution
Q99

Which one among the following is NOT included in the National Food Security Mission Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC) ?

  1. (a) Cotton
  2. (b) Coffee
  3. (c) Jute
  4. (d) Sugar cane
Answer and solution
Q100

Consider the following statements with regard to a steel plant :

I. It was setup in 1964 with Russian collaboration

II. It receives iron ore from the Rourkela region

III. Water and Hydel power is supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation

Identify the Steel Plant on the basis of the above facts :

  1. (a) Bhilai Steel Plant
  2. (b) Bokaro Steel Plant
  3. (c) Rourkela Steel Plant
  4. (d) Durgapur Steel Plant
Answer and solution
Q101

An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce pressure from which of the following major ports in India ?

  1. (a) Kandla Port
  2. (b) Cochin Port
  3. (c) Mormugao Port
  4. (d) New Mangalore Port
Answer and solution
Q102

As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following Himalayan states has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forest ?

  1. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Himachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Sikkim
  4. (d) Uttarakhand
Answer and solution
Q103

Which of the following statements with reference to L-Wave or Long Wave generated by an earthquake is/are correct ?

  1. They follow the Earth’s circumference

  2. They travel at more or less at a constant rate

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q104

Which one of the following is formed when volcanic ash is carried by running water and is deposited as a sedimentary layer ?

  1. (a) Basalt
  2. (b) Lapilli
  3. (c) Slate
  4. (d) Tuff
Answer and solution
Q105

Condensation of water vapour into water is influenced by which of the following factor/factors ?

  1. Volume of air

  2. Humidity

  3. Temperature

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q106

The lactic acid that gets accumulated in the muscle cells during rigorous exercise causing muscle cramps is produced from

  1. (a) ATP
  2. (b) Pyruvate
  3. (c) Ethanol
  4. (d) Glucose
Answer and solution
Q107

A chain of peptide containing linear sequences of amino acid linked by peptide bonds best represent the

  1. (a) Primary structure
  2. (b) Secondary structure
  3. (c) Tertiary structure
  4. (d) Quaternary structure
Answer and solution
Q108

Cambium is an example of

  1. (a) Lateral meristem
  2. (b) Apical meristem
  3. (c) Intercalary meristem
  4. (d) Permanent tissue
Answer and solution
Q109

What happens when the fat and oil containing food materials are left outside for a long time ?

  1. (a) Fats and oils in the food get oxidized
  2. (b) Fats and oils in the food get reduced
  3. (c) Fats and oils in the food get ice-covered
  4. (d) No reaction takes place
Answer and solution
Q110

Which is the correct base pairing found in a normal DNA molecule ?

  1. (a) Adenine pairs with Thymine
  2. (b) Adenine pairs with Guanine
  3. (c) Adenine pairs with Cytosine
  4. (d) Thymine pairs with Guanine
Answer and solution
Q111

Clotting of blood involves which one among the following clotting proteins ?

  1. (a) Pathogen
  2. (b) Fibrinogen
  3. (c) Macrophage
  4. (d) Phagocytes
Answer and solution
Q112

Initial discovery of antibiotic penicillin was done by

  1. (a) Francis Crick
  2. (b) Maurice Wilkins
  3. (c) Charles Darwin
  4. (d) Alexander Fleming
Answer and solution
Q113

The vector of malaria parasites is

  1. (a) Male Anopheles mosquito
  2. (b) Male Culex mosquito
  3. (c) Female Anopheles mosquito
  4. (d) Female Culex mosquito
Answer and solution
Q114

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

  1. Malaria : Mycobacterium

  2. TB : Plasmodium

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q115

Vitamin B1 is also known as

  1. (a) Riboflavin
  2. (b) Thiamin
  3. (c) Retinol
  4. (d) Tocopherol
Answer and solution
Q116

Gaja Dwar, Ashwa Dwar, Garuda Dwar, Makar Dwar, Shardula Dwar and Hamsa Dwar are located in a building at

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Varanasi
  3. (c) Aurangabad
  4. (d) Thanjevur
Answer and solution
Q117

Which dance form of India has been inscribed into UNESCO’s Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity ?

  1. (a) Kathakali
  2. (b) Garba
  3. (c) Bhangra
  4. (d) Odissi
Answer and solution
Q118

Which Ministry has initiated the “Dhara”, a special initiative dedicated to Indian Knowledge System (IKS) ?

  1. (a) The Ministry of Education
  2. (b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. (c) The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
  4. (d) The Ministry of Culture
Answer and solution
Q119

The scheme PRASHAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation & Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive) provides assistance for

  1. (a) e-Visa Facility
  2. (b) Multilingual Tourist Infoline
  3. (c) The development of tourism infrastructures in States & Union Territories
  4. (d) Promoting Dekho Apna Desh scheme
Answer and solution
Q120

The Joint Venture named ‘ASHVINI’ to develop nuclear power facility in India is between

  1. (a) NPCIL and NTPC
  2. (b) TMC and VECC
  3. (c) HWB and BARC
  4. (d) IGACR and NTPC
Answer and solution
Q121

Which one of the following statements about ‘REJUPAVE’ is correct ?

  1. (a) It’s a joint venture between Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and Government of India to promote organic farming
  2. (b) It’s the name given to the lightest surveillance aircraft developed by DRDO
  3. (c) It’s a centrally sponsored flagship Programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India
  4. (d) It’s an indigenously developed road construction technology at high altitudes
Answer and solution
Q122

Which of the following statements about ‘C-Bot’ is/are correct ?

  1. It’s an underwater vehicle to monitor coral reefs

  2. It has been developed by CSIR and NIO

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q123

India’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an aero-engine which will potentially make India self-reliance in aero-engine technology. What is the name of the engine ?

  1. (a) Ganga
  2. (b) Yamuna
  3. (c) Krishna
  4. (d) Kaveri
Answer and solution
Q124

Who among the following Presidents/Vice Presidents of the United States of America was awarded Nobel Peace Prize for work to find peaceful solutions to international conflicts, to advance democracy and human rights, and to promote economic and social development ?

  1. (a) Jimmy Carter
  2. (b) Woodrow Wilson
  3. (c) Barack Obama
  4. (d) Al Gore
Answer and solution
Q125

Which among the following agencies releases report on ‘S.A.F.E. Accommodation : Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth’ ?

  1. (a) RBI
  2. (b) NITI Aayog
  3. (c) National Housing Bank
  4. (d) Housing and Urban Development Corporation
Answer and solution
Q126

An object is placed between infinity and the pole (P) of a convex mirror. The position of the image is

  1. (a) between pole (P) and the focus (F), behind the mirror
  2. (b) between the focus (F) and infinity, behind the mirror
  3. (c) between the pole (P) and the infinity, in front of the mirror
  4. (d) at the focus (F), behind the mirror
Answer and solution
Q127

The work done in moving a charge of 2 coulomb (C) from point A to point B is 24 J. What is the potential difference between A and B ?

  1. (a) 48 V
  2. (b) 6 V
  3. (c) 12 V
  4. (d) 0.08 V
Answer and solution
Q128

Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in parallel and then in series in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in parallel and series combinations is

  1. (a) 2 : 1
  2. (b) 4 : 1
  3. (c) 1 : 2
  4. (d) 1 : 4
Answer and solution
Q129

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

  1. (a) is zero
  2. (b) decreases as we move towards its end
  3. (c) increases as we move towards its end
  4. (d) is uniform inside the solenoid
Answer and solution
Q130

A car has an initial velocity of 12 m/s and is brought to rest over a distance of 45 m. The acceleration of the car is

  1. (a) +1.6 m/s2+ 1.6\, m/s^{2}
  2. (b) +3.2 m/s2+ 3.2\, m/s^{2}
  3. (c) −1.6 m/s2- 1.6\, m/s^{2}
  4. (d) −0.8 m/s2- 0.8\, m/s^{2}
Answer and solution
Q131

The universal constant of gravitation G has the unit

  1. (a) N
  2. (b) m/s
  3. (c) Joule
  4. (d) N m2/kg2N\, m^{2}/kg^{2}
Answer and solution
Q132

Two bodies of unequal masses are dropped from a tower. At any instant, they have equal

  1. (a) Momentum
  2. (b) Acceleration
  3. (c) Potential energy
  4. (d) Kinetic energy
Answer and solution
Q133

The frequency (f), wavelength (λ) and speed (v) of a sound wave are related as

  1. (a) f=vλf = v\lambda
  2. (b) λ=vf\lambda = vf
  3. (c) f=λ/vf = \lambda/v
  4. (d) v=λfv = \lambda f
Answer and solution
Q134

The length of a simple pendulum is increased four times to its previous value while the mass is doubled. What is the ratio of the new and previous time period of the pendulum ?

  1. (a) 3 : 1
  2. (b) 2 : 5
  3. (c) 2 : 1
  4. (d) 3 : 2
Answer and solution
Q135

Which one of the following is NOT a basic property of electric charge ?

  1. (a) Charges can be added
  2. (b) Charge is conserved
  3. (c) Charge on a body is always an integral multiple of an electron or a proton charge
  4. (d) Charges can be created and destroyed in an isolated system
Answer and solution
Q136

What happens when the sunlight travels through the Earth’s atmosphere ?

  1. (a) The blue colour is scattered more compared to the red colour
  2. (b) The red colour is scattered more compared to the blue colour
  3. (c) Both the blue and the red colours are scattered equally
  4. (d) The blue colour is not scattered but the red colour is scattered the most
Answer and solution
Q137

When a solid body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on the body. The magnitude of the force is equal to

  1. the mass of the body

  2. the weight of the displaced fluid by the body

Which of the above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q138

If the length of a copper wire is increased by twice, then its resistivity will be

  1. (a) Doubled
  2. (b) Halved
  3. (c) Same
  4. (d) One-fourth
Answer and solution
Q139

Which one of the following is dimensionless quantity ?

  1. (a) Stress
  2. (b) Strain
  3. (c) Pressure
  4. (d) Force
Answer and solution
Q140

A system that does NOT allow exchange of heat with its surrounding is called

  1. (a) Adiabatic system
  2. (b) Non-adiabatic system
  3. (c) Equilibrium system
  4. (d) Non-equilibrium system
Answer and solution
Q141

If the speed of light in carbon disulfide and vacuum is X and Y respectively, then

  1. (a) X<YX < Y
  2. (b) X>YX > Y
  3. (c) X≥YX \geq Y
  4. (d) X=YX = Y
Answer and solution
Q142

A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to west direction. What will be the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it when viewed from east end ?

  1. (a) Clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
  2. (b) Anti-clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
  3. (c) Clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire
  4. (d) Anti-clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire
Answer and solution
Q143

Which one among the following elements is known to be discovered the earliest ?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Gold
  3. (c) Oxygen
  4. (d) Uranium
Answer and solution
Q144

When a light ray passes through from air to water with a non-zero angle the ray will be

  1. (a) bending towards the normal
  2. (b) bending away from the normal
  3. (c) propagating in straight line
  4. (d) reflected towards the opposite direction
Answer and solution
Q145

Which one of the following equations related to the motion of an object is NOT correct ? (Symbols carry their usual meanings)

  1. (a) s=ut+12at2s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^{2}
  2. (b) u=v−atu = v - at
  3. (c) u2−v2=2asu^{2} - v^{2} = 2as
  4. (d) Distance travelled during nthn^{th} second =u+12a(2n−1)= u + \frac{1}{2}a(2n - 1)
Answer and solution
Q146

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

  1. (a) An ammeter is always connected in series in the circuit to measure the current
  2. (b) A Voltmeter is always connected to parallel in a circuit to measure the voltage
  3. (c) A voltmeter has a high resistance and an ammeter has a low resistance
  4. (d) A voltmeter has a low resistance and an ammeter has a high resistance
Answer and solution
Q147

Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy ?

  1. (a) Petroleum
  2. (b) Natural Gas
  3. (c) Tidal energy
  4. (d) Coal
Answer and solution
Q148

If three resistors of 1 Ohm each connect in parallel to each other the resultant resistance is

  1. (a) 1 Ohm
  2. (b) 13\frac{1}{3} Ohm
  3. (c) 3 Ohm
  4. (d) 9 Ohm
Answer and solution
Q149

We hear an echo due to

  1. (a) Refraction of sound waves
  2. (b) Reflection of sound waves
  3. (c) Diffraction of sound waves
  4. (d) Resonance due to sound waves
Answer and solution
Q150

At uniform speed the acceleration is

  1. (a) Maximum
  2. (b) Minimum
  3. (c) Zero
  4. (d) Constant
Answer and solution