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NDA 1 2024 GAT Question Paper with Solutions

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Questions.

Directions · Q1 to Q5

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q1

Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.

  1. (a) reprehensible
  2. (b) opprobrious
  3. (c) despicable
  4. (d) commendable
Answer and solution
Q2

These exercises will counteract the effects of stress and tension.

  1. (a) exacerbate
  2. (b) foil
  3. (c) thwart
  4. (d) contravene
Answer and solution
Q3

You have to persevere with difficult students.

  1. (a) give up
  2. (b) persist
  3. (c) carry on
  4. (d) stand firm
Answer and solution
Q4

Their new colour scheme is hideous.

  1. (a) appalling
  2. (b) beautiful
  3. (c) grotesque
  4. (d) macabre
Answer and solution
Q5

Everywhere they go, they squander their earnings.

  1. (a) fritter away
  2. (b) splurge
  3. (c) squabble
  4. (d) manage
Answer and solution

Directions · Q6 to Q15

In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Passage · Q6 to Q15

The Earth's climate is ________ (6) changing and evolving. Some of ________ (7) changes have been due to natural causes but others can be attributed to ________ (8) activities such as deforestation, emissions from industry and transport, etc., which have led to the ________ (9) of gases and aerosols in ________ (10) atmosphere. These gases are known as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and ________ (11) air temperatures near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the ________ (12). In order to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity ________ (13) assessment of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme ________ (14). Many important bilateral and multilateral meetings and negotiations are held ________ (15) regular intervals.

Q6

Select the most appropriate word for blank (6) :

  1. (a) passionately
  2. (b) continually
  3. (c) deadly
  4. (d) thoughtfully
Answer and solution
Q7

Select the most appropriate word for blank (7) :

  1. (a) these
  2. (b) those
  3. (c) this
  4. (d) that
Answer and solution
Q8

Select the most appropriate word for blank (8) :

  1. (a) practical
  2. (b) geological
  3. (c) human
  4. (d) animal
Answer and solution
Q9

Select the most appropriate word for blank (9) :

  1. (a) assimilation
  2. (b) absolution
  3. (c) collection
  4. (d) accumulation
Answer and solution
Q10

Select the most appropriate word for blank (10) :

  1. (a) an
  2. (b) a
  3. (c) the
  4. (d) no article
Answer and solution
Q11

Select the most appropriate word for blank (11) :

  1. (a) raise
  2. (b) hike
  3. (c) rise
  4. (d) balance
Answer and solution
Q12

Select the most appropriate word for blank (12) :

  1. (a) crust.
  2. (b) core
  3. (c) mantle
  4. (d) planet
Answer and solution
Q13

Select the most appropriate word for blank (13) :

  1. (a) for
  2. (b) of
  3. (c) in
  4. (d) to
Answer and solution
Q14

Select the most appropriate word for blank (14) :

  1. (a) are developed.
  2. (b) are initiated
  3. (c) have developed
  4. (d) have initiated
Answer and solution
Q15

Select the most appropriate word for blank (15) :

  1. (a) with
  2. (b) at
  3. (c) in
  4. (d) on
Answer and solution

Directions · Q16 to Q25

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q16

He paused

  1. (a) with a few moments.
  2. (b) for a few moments.
  3. (c) by a few moments.
  4. (d) into a few moments.
Answer and solution
Q17

Late at night, our car

  1. (a) broke down on the highway.
  2. (b) broke up on the highway.
  3. (c) broke into the highway.
  4. (d) broke out on the highway.
Answer and solution
Q18

All the countries signed the treaty

  1. (a) beneath Germany and France.
  2. (b) except Germany and France.
  3. (c) among Germany and France.
  4. (d) during Germany and France.
Answer and solution
Q19

I reminded her

  1. (a) to turn off the lights at night.
  2. (b) to call off the lights at night.
  3. (c) to drop off the lights at night.
  4. (d) to break off the lights at night.
Answer and solution
Q20

They told us about the woman

  1. (a) whom lived next door.
  2. (b) which lived next door.
  3. (c) who lived next door.
  4. (d) whose lived next door.
Answer and solution
Q21

I'll see you

  1. (a) at the end of February.
  2. (b) on the end of February.
  3. (c) along the end of February.
  4. (d) for the end of February.
Answer and solution
Q22

I dislike films

  1. (a) who have sad endings.
  2. (b) that have sad endings.
  3. (c) whose have sad endings.
  4. (d) whom have sad endings.
Answer and solution
Q23

The thieves denied

  1. (a) having stealing the money.
  2. (b) stealing the money.
  3. (c) had stolen the money.
  4. (d) having to steal the money.
Answer and solution
Q24

Did you

  1. (a) drop out to see Sunita on your way home ?
  2. (b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home ?
  3. (c) drop behind to see Sunita on your way home ?
  4. (d) drop away to see Sunita on your way home ?
Answer and solution
Q25

Would you like to

  1. (a) meeting her ?
  2. (b) meet her ?
  3. (c) met her ?
  4. (d) meet with her ?
Answer and solution

Directions · Q26 to Q30

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q26

Be bad news

  1. (a) feelings of hate
  2. (b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way
  3. (c) someone who is considered undesirable
  4. (d) to be ill
Answer and solution
Q27

Back to the drawing board

  1. (a) to draw comparisons
  2. (b) to be a member of planning group
  3. (c) to start planning again because the previous plan has failed
  4. (d) to be fast at understanding a situation
Answer and solution
Q28

Be in the eye of the storm

  1. (a) to look at something quickly
  2. (b) to fail miserably at a sport
  3. (c) to see something that you do not want to see
  4. (d) to be in the midst of a controversy
Answer and solution
Q29

Life in the fast lane

  1. (a) to lead a selfless life
  2. (b) to have a happy life without complaints
  3. (c) life without money or comforts
  4. (d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle
Answer and solution
Q30

To pass the buck

  1. (a) to collect money from a group of people
  2. (b) to shift the responsibility of something to someone
  3. (c) to have a short conversation with someone
  4. (d) to have the credentials for a particular job
Answer and solution

Directions · Q31 to Q35

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q31

P : include basic freedoms

Q : the fundamental rights are

R : guaranteed to the individual

S : basic rights and

  1. (a) QSPR
  2. (b) QRSP
  3. (c) SQRP
  4. (d) RQSP
Answer and solution
Q32

P : for many millennia

Q : been in the making

R : of a historical process that has

S : the Indian nation is the product

  1. (a) SRQP
  2. (b) SQPR
  3. (c) PRSQ
  4. (d) RSQP
Answer and solution
Q33

P : an epoch that was imbued

Q : for its people the start of

R : with a new vision

S : India's Independence represented

  1. (a) SQPR
  2. (b) QRPS
  3. (c) SPQR
  4. (d) RQSP
Answer and solution
Q34

P : science and mathematics exhibition

Q : for a discussion on the forthcoming

R : to be present before the Principal

S : all students have been instructed

  1. (a) SQPR
  2. (b) RPQS
  3. (c) SRQP
  4. (d) QPRS
Answer and solution
Q35

P : two bowlers and two batsmen respectively

Q : to the new team

R : with the selection of another player

S : the team now has

  1. (a) QPRS
  2. (b) SQRP
  3. (c) RQSP
  4. (d) RPSQ
Answer and solution

Directions · Q36 to Q40

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q36

You are most welcome to visit my humble abode.

  1. (a) Noun
  2. (b) Adjective
  3. (c) Adverb
  4. (d) Participle
Answer and solution
Q37

The situation is beyond our control.

  1. (a) Adjective
  2. (b) Adverb
  3. (c) Conjunction
  4. (d) Preposition
Answer and solution
Q38

I didn't tell him anything except that I needed the money.

  1. (a) Adjective
  2. (b) Adverb
  3. (c) Preposition
  4. (d) Conjunction
Answer and solution
Q39

He dry-cleaned my coat nicely.

  1. (a) Adjective
  2. (b) Adverb
  3. (c) Relative pronoun
  4. (d) Conjunction
Answer and solution
Q40

Would you like to buy this new item ?

  1. (a) Determiner
  2. (b) Conjunction
  3. (c) Interjection
  4. (d) Adjective
Answer and solution

Directions · Q41 to Q45

Read the following passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based solely on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author.

Passage · Q41 to Q45

The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals and microbes we observe when we study a natural forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area's biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the biotic community includes all vegetation, from large trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise, the animal portion includes everything from large mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria, fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community comprises a plant community, an animal community and a microbial community.

The particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support and limit the particular community. For example, a relative lack of available moisture prevents the growth of most species of plants, but supports certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas are deserts. Land with plenty of available moisture and a suitable temperature supports forests. The presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities.

The first step in investigating a biotic community may be simply to catalogue all the species present. Species are the different kinds of plants, animals and microbes in the community. A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups. Each species in a biotic community is represented by a certain population — that is, by a certain number of individuals that make up the interbreeding, reproducing group.

Q41

Which one of the following does not belong to the biotic community ?

  1. (a) Water
  2. (b) Human
  3. (c) Protozoa
  4. (d) Bush
Answer and solution
Q42

The nature of the biotic community largely depends on :

  1. Biotic components

  2. Abiotic components

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q43

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor ?

  1. (a) Temperature
  2. (b) Humidity
  3. (c) Algae
  4. (d) Moisture
Answer and solution
Q44

In the passage, the word ‘aquatic community’ refers to :

  1. (a) Biotic community inhabiting the land
  2. (b) Biotic community found in water
  3. (c) Biotic community found in the air
  4. (d) Assemblage of rain and moisture
Answer and solution
Q45

Species are defined on the basis of :

  1. (a) Similarities only
  2. (b) Differences only
  3. (c) Both similarities and differences
  4. (d) None of the above
Answer and solution

Directions · Q46 to Q50

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q46

The king's son was banished due to the political rivalry.

  1. (a) deported
  2. (b) called back
  3. (c) accepted
  4. (d) notified
Answer and solution
Q47

He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.

  1. (a) brilliant
  2. (b) dismal
  3. (c) pathetic
  4. (d) puerile
Answer and solution
Q48

She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.

  1. (a) took
  2. (b) rejected
  3. (c) criticized
  4. (d) granted
Answer and solution
Q49

He disowned his royal legacy and became a commoner.

  1. (a) accepted
  2. (b) abandoned
  3. (c) allowed
  4. (d) questioned
Answer and solution
Q50

The public was sceptical about the new government policy.

  1. (a) hopeful
  2. (b) anxious
  3. (c) doubtful
  4. (d) expectant
Answer and solution
Q51

An infinite combination of resistors, each having resistance R=4 ΩR=4\ \Omega, is given below. What is the net resistance between the points AA and BB ? (Each resistance is of equal value, R=4R=4)

Figure for Q51

  1. (a) 0 Ω0\ \Omega
  2. (b) 2+25 Ω2+2\sqrt{5}\ \Omega
  3. (c) 2+5 Ω2+\sqrt{5}\ \Omega
  4. (d) ∞ Ω\infty \ \Omega
Answer and solution
Q52

An electric circuit is given below. V1=1 VV_{1}=1\text{ V} and Resistance R=1000 ΩR=1000\ \Omega.

Figure for Q52

The current through the resistance RR is very close to 1 mA1\text{ mA} and the voltage across point AA and BB, VAB=1 VV_{AB}=1\text{ V}. Now the circuit is changed to :

Figure for Q52

where value of V2=5 VV_{2}=5\text{ V}. The internal resistances of both the batteries are 0.1 Ω0.1\ \Omega. The current through the resistance RR is about :

  1. (a) 1.0 mA1.0\text{ mA}
  2. (b) 1.2 mA1.2\text{ mA}
  3. (c) 3.0 mA3.0\text{ mA}
  4. (d) 5.0 mA5.0\text{ mA}
Answer and solution
Q53

If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A15\text{ A} and the machine runs for 10 minutes10\text{ minutes}, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is :

  1. (a) 1.50 C1.50\text{ C}
  2. (b) 150 C150\text{ C}
  3. (c) 900 C900\text{ C}
  4. (d) 9000 C9000\text{ C}
Answer and solution
Q54

Which one of the following is the best shape of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a lightning conductor ?

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q55

Which of the following forces is/are fundamental in nature ?

  1. Gravitational force

  2. Electromagnetic forces

  3. Strong and weak nuclear forces

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q56

A spherical shell of outer radius RR and inner radius R/2R/2 contains a solid sphere of radius R/2R/2 (see figure). The density of the material of the solid sphere is ρ\rho and that of the shell is ρ/2\rho/2. What is the average mass density of the larger sphere thus formed ?

Figure for Q56

  1. (a) 3ρ/43\rho/4
  2. (b) 9ρ/169\rho/16
  3. (c) 7ρ/87\rho/8
  4. (d) 5ρ/85\rho/8
Answer and solution
Q57

The human eye is like a camera that has a lens with :

  1. (a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
  2. (b) variable focal length and fixed aperture size.
  3. (c) fixed focal length and variable aperture size.
  4. (d) variable focal length and variable aperture size.
Answer and solution
Q58

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides ?

  1. Religious or social practices of Nagas

  2. Naga customary law and procedure

  3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources

  4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and solution
Q59

Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under :

  1. the Government of India.

  2. any State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q60

Consider the following UN Declarations/Covenants :

  1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

  2. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women

  3. International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

  4. Convention on Refugees

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the above ?

  1. (a) 1, 4, 3, 2
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  3. (c) 1, 3, 2, 4
  4. (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer and solution
Q61

Which one of the following statements regarding the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan is not correct ?

  1. (a) Development of the basic and heavy industry sector
  2. (b) Increase in national income to raise living standards
  3. (c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector
  4. (d) Expansion of employment opportunities
Answer and solution
Q62

Consider the following statements about the emergence of urban centres in India from circa 6th Century BCE6^{th}\text{ Century BCE} :

  1. All of them developed away from the capitals of mahajanpadas.

  2. Major towns were located along routes of communication.

  3. Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity.

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) None
Answer and solution
Q63

Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions :

  1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.

  2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area.

  3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention.

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) None
Answer and solution
Q64

The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists in two isotopic forms 10B^{10}B and 11B^{11}B) is 10.8110.81. What will be the abundance of 10B^{10}B and 11B^{11}B, respectively (consider a sample of 100100 atoms) ?

  1. (a) 19%19\% and 81%81\%
  2. (b) 81%81\% and 19%19\%
  3. (c) 38%38\% and 62%62\%
  4. (d) 62%62\% and 38%38\%
Answer and solution
Q65

Which among the following are essential constituents of Portland cement ?

  1. (a) Sand, lime, clay
  2. (b) Silica, alumina, lime
  3. (c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
  4. (d) Sand, graphene, clay
Answer and solution
Q66

Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is derived from :

  1. (a) Fungi
  2. (b) Lichens
  3. (c) Bacteria
  4. (d) Termite
Answer and solution
Q67

What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in V2O5V_{2}O_{5} ?

  1. (a) +2+2
  2. (b) +4+4
  3. (c) +3+3
  4. (d) +5+5
Answer and solution
Q68

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Allotrope of Carbon) List-II (Property)
A. Graphite 1. Thinnest and strongest material
B. Diamond 2. Hardest natural substance
C. Fullerene 3. Very light and strong material
D. Graphene 4. Soft and slippery material

Code :

A B C D

  1. (a) 4 2 3 1
  2. (b) 4 3 2 1
  3. (c) 1 3 2 4
  4. (d) 1 2 3 4
Answer and solution
Q69

Consider the following statements regarding the International Date Line :

  1. It is roughly 180∘180^{\circ} meridian, which deviates slightly East and West to avoid land areas surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.

  2. The date to the East of this line is (24 hours24\text{ hours}) earlier than to the West.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q70

Which of the following statements regarding ‘aurora’ is/are correct ?

  1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth's atmosphere is directed towards two magnetic poles and a colourful display of lights is seen in the night sky.

  2. The particles interact with the different gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows with a particular colour.

  3. In April 2023, aurora was captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q71

Which of the following statements regarding Barchan is/are correct ?

  1. It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert.

  2. The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre.

  3. Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q72

Which of the following statements regarding Regur soil is/are correct ?

  1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.

  2. It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.

  3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 2 and 3
  3. (c) 2 only
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q73

Which of the following statements regarding clouds is/are correct ?

  1. Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form.

  2. According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds.

  3. Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q74

Consider the following statements regarding ‘fronts’ :

  1. The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves.

  2. Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.

  3. Warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q75

Consider the following statements regarding soils :

  1. Soils having a very high content of sodium and calcium and pHpH of more than 7.07.0 are alkaline soils.

  2. Black cotton soil had developed on the Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.

  3. Laterite soils are characterised by a deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q76

Consider the following characteristics of a grassland :

  1. An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs.

  2. The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer.

  3. In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height.

On the basis of the above characteristics, select the correct grassland from the options given below :

  1. (a) Steppes
  2. (b) Prairies
  3. (c) Savanna
  4. (d) Pampas
Answer and solution
Q77

Which of the following statements regarding animal cell membrane is correct ?

  1. (a) They are composed of phospholipids only.
  2. (b) They are composed of proteins only.
  3. (c) They are composed of phospholipids and proteins only.
  4. (d) They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).
Answer and solution
Q78

Which of the following is not a part of compound microscope ?

  1. (a) Mirror
  2. (b) Stage
  3. (c) Clip
  4. (d) Retina
Answer and solution
Q79

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing complexity ?

  1. (a) Protein – Organism – Tissue – Organ
  2. (b) Protein – Organ – Tissue – Organism
  3. (c) Protein – Organism – Organ – Tissue
  4. (d) Protein – Tissue – Organ – Organism
Answer and solution
Q80

Consider the following cell types :

  1. Monocyte

  2. Chondrocyte

  3. Basophil

  4. Lymphocyte

How many of the above belong to animal cell types ?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) 4
Answer and solution
Q81

In the human digestive system, which one among the following is the role of the pancreas ?

  1. (a) Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets
  2. (b) Storage and regulated release of bile
  3. (c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease
  4. (d) Neutralizing stomach acids
Answer and solution
Q82

Consider the following statements :

  1. DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up.

  2. Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division.

  3. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q83

A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24 kg0.24\text{ kg} is made of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W1W_{1} and W2W_{2}, in a horizontal position. W1W_{1} is at a distance of 0.2 m0.2\text{ m} from one of its ends, while W2W_{2} is at distance of 0.4 m0.4\text{ m} from the other end. If the force on the scale is N1N_{1} due to W1W_{1} and N2N_{2} due to W2W_{2}, then : (take g=10.0 m s−2g=10.0\text{ m s}^{-2})

  1. (a) N1=1.6 NN_{1}=1.6\text{ N} and N2=0.8 NN_{2}=0.8\text{ N}
  2. (b) N1=0.8 NN_{1}=0.8\text{ N} and N2=1.6 NN_{2}=1.6\text{ N}
  3. (c) N1=0.6 NN_{1}=0.6\text{ N} and N2=1.8 NN_{2}=1.8\text{ N}
  4. (d) N1=1.8 NN_{1}=1.8\text{ N} and N2=0.6 NN_{2}=0.6\text{ N}
Answer and solution
Q84

Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2 km s−111.2\text{ km s}^{-1}. On another planet whose radius is half of the Earth's radius and whose mass density is four times that of the Earth, the escape speed in km s−1\text{km s}^{-1} will be close to :

  1. (a) 11.211.2
  2. (b) 15.815.8
  3. (c) 5.65.6
  4. (d) 7.97.9
Answer and solution
Q85

Which one of the following does not apply to sound waves in fluids ?

  1. (a) They transport energy
  2. (b) They need a medium to travel
  3. (c) They are transverse
  4. (d) They travel faster in liquids than in gases
Answer and solution
Q86

A ball of 0.1 kg0.1\text{ kg} mass is dropped on a hard floor from a height of 0.45 m0.45\text{ m} and rises to a height of 0.20 m0.20\text{ m}. If it was in touch with the floor for 0.1 s0.1\text{ s}, the net force it applied on the floor while bouncing is : (take the gravitational acceleration g=10 m s−2g=10\text{ m s}^{-2})

  1. (a) 1.0 N1.0\text{ N}
  2. (b) 6.0 N6.0\text{ N}
  3. (c) 3.0 N3.0\text{ N}
  4. (d) 5.0 N5.0\text{ N}
Answer and solution
Q87

Which one of the following statements regarding simple pendulum is correct ?

Simple pendulum has a time period independent of amplitude :

  1. (a) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is independent of its displacement.
  2. (b) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is always proportional to its displacement.
  3. (c) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is independent of its displacement.
  4. (d) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.
Answer and solution
Q88

Which one of the following about different frictional forces is correct ?

  1. (a) Kinetic friction>Static friction>Rolling friction\text{Kinetic friction}>\text{Static friction}>\text{Rolling friction}
  2. (b) Static friction>Rolling friction>Kinetic friction\text{Static friction}>\text{Rolling friction}>\text{Kinetic friction}
  3. (c) Static friction>Kinetic friction>Rolling friction\text{Static friction}>\text{Kinetic friction}>\text{Rolling friction}
  4. (d) Static friction>Kinetic friction=Rolling friction\text{Static friction}>\text{Kinetic friction}=\text{Rolling friction}
Answer and solution
Q89

A metallic bob XX of mass mm is released from position AA. It collides elastically with another identical bob YY placed at rest at position BB on a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOBAOB is 30∘30^{\circ}.

Figure for Q89

How high does the bob XX rise immediately after the collision ?

  1. (a) To the same height as that of position AA on the other side in the same trajectory
  2. (b) To half the height as that of position AA on the other side along the same trajectory
  3. (c) The same height at position AA
  4. (d) It stops at position BB
Answer and solution
Q90

Consider the two statements given below :

Statement-1 : Infrared waves are also called heat waves.

Statement-2 : Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
  2. (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
  3. (c) Statement-1 is true, but Statement-2 is false.
  4. (d) Statement-2 is true, but Statement-1 is false.
Answer and solution
Q91

Which of the following statements are correct ?

  1. British ‘trade surplus’ with India in the nineteenth century meant that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India.

  2. India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits.

  3. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China and, therefore, for a while after the 1820s, opium became India's single largest export.

  4. The nineteenth century saw export of Indian raw materials decline, and that of manufactured goods increase.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 3 and 4 only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer and solution
Q92

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Unit in use in early India) List-II (Content)
A. Muhurta 1. Measure of weight
B. Raktika 2. Measure of time
C. Angula 3. Metre of poetry
D. Pada 4. Measure of length

Code :

A B C D

  1. (a) 2 1 4 3
  2. (b) 2 4 1 3
  3. (c) 3 4 1 2
  4. (d) 3 1 4 2
Answer and solution
Q93

First coins in Indian history bearing the names and images of rulers were issued by the :

  1. (a) Mauryas
  2. (b) Pushyabhutis
  3. (c) Guptas
  4. (d) Indo-Greeks
Answer and solution
Q94

Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries emphasised the emergence of industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of :

  1. (a) Modernity
  2. (b) Feudalism
  3. (c) Kingship
  4. (d) Medievalism
Answer and solution
Q95

Consider the following events :

  1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

  2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi

  3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act

  4. Jallianwala Bagh incident

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest) ?

  1. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. (b) 3, 4, 2, 1
  3. (c) 3, 2, 4, 1
  4. (d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Answer and solution
Q96

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (System/Category) List-II (Description)
A. Upari 1. Peasants directly responsible for the payment of revenue
B. Pattadar 2. Category of tenancy tenure held under the Marathas
C. Mirasidar 3. Gifts of land or land revenue
D. Inam lands 4. Co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India

Code :

A B C D

  1. (a) 2 1 4 3
  2. (b) 2 4 1 3
  3. (c) 3 4 1 2
  4. (d) 3 1 4 2
Answer and solution
Q97

Which of the following statements about Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya's expeditions are correct ?

  1. In the early years of his reign he marched against the ruler of Orissa.

  2. In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan.

  3. Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1 and 2 only
Answer and solution
Q98

Water gas is a mixture of :

  1. (a) CO2CO_{2} and H2H_{2}
  2. (b) COCO and H2H_{2}
  3. (c) CO2CO_{2} and H2OH_{2}O
  4. (d) COCO and H2OH_{2}O
Answer and solution
Q99

Human body works in the pHpH range of :

  1. (a) 6.8−7.26.8-7.2
  2. (b) 7.0−7.87.0-7.8
  3. (c) 6.5−7.56.5-7.5
  4. (d) 7.5−8.07.5-8.0
Answer and solution
Q100

Which one among the following statements with reference to the properties of water is not correct ?

  1. (a) The specific heat of water is abnormally high.
  2. (b) Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.
  3. (c) Density of water is higher than ice.
  4. (d) Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity.
Answer and solution
Q101

Which one among the following compounds has a sweet and fruity smell ?

  1. (a) Ethyl alcohol
  2. (b) Acetic acid
  3. (c) Ethyl acetate
  4. (d) Acetophenone
Answer and solution
Q102

What is the coordination number of Na+Na^{+} and Cl−Cl^{-} ions in NaClNaCl lattice ?

  1. (a) 6,16,1
  2. (b) 1,61,6
  3. (c) 6,66,6
  4. (d) 5,55,5
Answer and solution
Q103

Which one among the following is present in the nettle leaf hairs that causes burning pain ?

  1. (a) Methanoic acid
  2. (b) Ethanoic acid
  3. (c) Benzoic acid
  4. (d) Acetic acid
Answer and solution
Q104

Which one among the following is known as Milk of Magnesia ?

  1. (a) Magnesium bicarbonate
  2. (b) Magnesium carbonate
  3. (c) Magnesium sulphate
  4. (d) Magnesium hydroxide
Answer and solution
Q105

Soap with water forms :

  1. (a) Metallotropic liquid crystal
  2. (b) Thermotropic liquid crystal
  3. (c) Homogeneous solution
  4. (d) Lyotropic liquid crystal
Answer and solution
Q106

Which among the following is the correct composition of Borax ?

  1. (a) Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen
  2. (b) Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
  3. (c) Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
  4. (d) Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen
Answer and solution
Q107

Which one among the following oxides has the highest melting point ?

  1. (a) Na2ONa_{2}O
  2. (b) MgOMgO
  3. (c) Fe2O3Fe_{2}O_{3}
  4. (d) CuOCuO
Answer and solution
Q108

Which of the following statements regarding neap tides is/are correct ?

  1. It occurs every 14−15 days14-15\text{ days}, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon.

  2. This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q109

Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes is/are correct ?

  1. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake.

  2. Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus.

  3. Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q110

Which of the following statements regarding air temperature is/are correct ?

  1. Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2 m1.2\text{ m} (4.0 feet4.0\text{ feet}) above the ground surface.

  2. The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q111

Which of the following statements regarding humidity is/are correct ?

  1. It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature.

  2. When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin.

  3. Higher the air temperature lower the relative humidity of the air.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q112

Which of the following statements regarding cyclones and anti-cyclones is/are correct ?

  1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counter clockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise.

  2. Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather.

  3. In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q113

Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics :

  1. It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India.

  2. It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole.

  3. A deep draft channel of about 14 metres14\text{ metres} depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour.

Select the correct sea-port from the options given below :

  1. (a) Mormugao Port
  2. (b) Deendayal Port
  3. (c) Cochin Port
  4. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
Answer and solution
Q114

Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics :

  1. It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar.

  2. Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakund.

  3. Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.

Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below :

  1. (a) Bhilai Steel Plant
  2. (b) Durgapur Steel Plant
  3. (c) Rourkela Steel Plant
  4. (d) Bokaro Steel Plant
Answer and solution
Q115

Which of the following statements regarding Earth's internal structure is/are correct ?

  1. The oceanic crust is heavier than the continental crust.

  2. Most of the Earth's internal heat is contained within the mantle.

  3. Large convective cells in the crust circulate heat and drive plate-tectonic processes.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 3 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q116

Which of the following statements regarding the given rivers is/are correct ?

  1. Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang.

  2. Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent10\text{ percent} of the area of India.

  3. Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q117

Which of the following statements regarding the World Climate Types and their relation with Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is/are correct ?

  1. Tropical Wet Climate is one of the world's rainiest due to the dominance of the ITCZ over it.

  2. Tropical Savanna Climate experiences a distinctive alternation of wet and dry seasons, caused chiefly by the seasonal shift in latitude of the subtropical highs and ITCZ.

  3. The Tropical Monsoonal Climate experiences heavy rainfall as a consequence of the nearness of the ITCZ for much of the year.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q118

Which of the following statements regarding tropical cyclones is/are correct ?

  1. These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans.

  2. Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons.

  3. Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 3 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q119

Identify the land biome on the basis of the given characteristics :

  1. Their climates are characterised by high rainfall and temperatures that vary from cold to mild.

  2. These forests contain primarily deciduous trees – including maple, oak, hickory and beechwood.

  3. Raccoons, opossums, bats and squirrels are found in the trees.

Select the correct land biome from the options given below :

  1. (a) Tropical forest
  2. (b) Temperate forest
  3. (c) Boreal forest
  4. (d) Mediterranean forest
Answer and solution
Q120

Leaves of most plants appear green because the chlorophyll present in it :

  1. (a) absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.
  2. (b) absorbs green light only.
  3. (c) absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light.
  4. (d) reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light.
Answer and solution
Q121

In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is :

  1. (a) 44
  2. (b) 33
  3. (c) 22
  4. (d) 11
Answer and solution
Q122

Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with :

  1. (a) any scaffold
  2. (b) proteins
  3. (c) ribozymes
  4. (d) plasmid
Answer and solution
Q123

Which one among the following cells produces antibodies against a foreign antigen ?

  1. (a) Lymphocytes
  2. (b) Erythrocytes
  3. (c) Eosinophils
  4. (d) Platelets
Answer and solution
Q124

If the block PP as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force FF be ?

Figure for Q124

  1. (a) 5 N5\text{ N}
  2. (b) 6 N6\text{ N}
  3. (c) 8 N8\text{ N}
  4. (d) 10 N10\text{ N}
Answer and solution
Q125

Of the following, which does not belong to a nuclear reactor ?

  1. (a) A turbine
  2. (b) A heat exchanger
  3. (c) A mechanism to reduce CO2CO_{2} emission
  4. (d) A reaction chamber
Answer and solution
Q126

Consider the following electric circuit :

Figure for Q126

The current in the above electric circuit is :

  1. (a) 1 A1\text{ A}
  2. (b) (10/15) A(10/15)\text{ A}
  3. (c) 2 A2\text{ A}
  4. (d) 1.5 A1.5\text{ A}
Answer and solution
Q127

A microscope may be a combination of :

  1. (a) two convex lenses.
  2. (b) a convex and a concave lens.
  3. (c) two concave lenses.
  4. (d) a convex lens and a convex mirror.
Answer and solution
Q128

For a human eye, where uu is the distance of an object from the eye, ff is the focal length of the lens and vv is the distance of image from the eye, which is the correct schematic graph ?

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q129

Which of the following statements with regard to the phenomenon of the primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct ?

  1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.

  2. It involves refraction of sunlight only.

  3. It is formed as the inner bow.

  4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as refraction of sunlight.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3
  3. (c) 3 and 4
  4. (d) 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q130

Which one of the following scientists mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy ?

  1. (a) Ernest Rutherford
  2. (b) J.J. Thomson
  3. (c) Niels Bohr
  4. (d) Albert Einstein
Answer and solution
Q131

LIGO experiment confirmed one of the predictions of :

  1. (a) String theory
  2. (b) Special theory of relativity
  3. (c) Quantum mechanics
  4. (d) General theory of relativity
Answer and solution
Q132

A block of mass 2 kg2\text{ kg}, moving with the initial speed of 3 m/s3\text{ m/s} comes to rest on a rough horizontal surface after travelling a distance of 3 m3\text{ m}. The magnitude of the frictional force is :

  1. (a) 9 N9\text{ N}
  2. (b) 3 N3\text{ N}
  3. (c) 18 N18\text{ N}
  4. (d) 1 N1\text{ N}
Answer and solution
Q133

Which one of the following is primarily responsible for conduction of current in a metal ?

  1. (a) Bound electrons
  2. (b) Free electrons
  3. (c) Both bound and free electrons
  4. (d) Ions
Answer and solution
Q134

Which of the following were features of the postal system of India as described by Ibn Battuta ?

  1. The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand.

  2. The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles.

  3. The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance.

  4. The foot post is quicker than horse post.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 4
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer and solution
Q135

Which one of the following texts is a commentary written by Chakrapanidatta (11 Century CE11\text{ Century CE} from Bengal) on the Sushrut Samhita ?

  1. (a) Sabdachandrika
  2. (b) Bhanumati
  3. (c) Nitiratnakara
  4. (d) Lohasarvasava
Answer and solution
Q136

Consider the following statements about the arrival of tobacco in India :

  1. Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan.

  2. Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q137

Consider the following Women's Associations and their important associates in early twentieth century India :

Women's Association Associate
1. Women's Indian Association of 1917 Margaret Cousins
2. National Council of Women in India of 1925 Sarala Devi Chaudhurani
3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 Lady Meherbai Tata

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer and solution
Q138

Consider the following statements about the issue of separate electorate during the early decades of the twentieth century in India as a means to secure adequate representation for the deprived social categories in the absence of universal adult franchise :

  1. The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of joint electorate.

  2. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded separate electorate.

  3. The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate electorate for the ‘untouchables’.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q139

Which of the following statements with regard to the famous ‘silk routes’ are correct ?

  1. Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes.

  2. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa.

  3. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century.

  4. Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 1, 3 and 4
  3. (c) 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer and solution
Q140

Consider the following statements about Ajanta paintings :

  1. The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this.

  2. The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q141

Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are correct ?

  1. SKA is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world's biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.

  2. The Government of India has accorded its approval for India's participation in the international mega science project.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q142

Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and :

  1. (a) Kuwait
  2. (b) Saudi Arabia
  3. (c) United Arab Emirates
  4. (d) Oman
Answer and solution
Q143

Which of the following statements with regard to the constitution of Finance Commission is/are correct ?

  1. The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya.

  2. Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q144

Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Which one among the following cities is not one among them ?

  1. (a) Indore
  2. (b) Bhopal
  3. (c) Udaipur
  4. (d) Jodhpur
Answer and solution
Q145

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. In India, 12th March12^{th}\text{ March} is celebrated as the National Youth Day.

  2. National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q146

Consider the following statements about INS Sagardhwani :

  1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO.

  2. Recently it embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q147

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country and to make recommendations thereon ?

  1. (a) Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah
  2. (b) Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
  3. (c) Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind
  4. (d) Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar
Answer and solution
Q148

In January 2024, India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated at :

  1. (a) Bhopal
  2. (b) Kohima
  3. (c) Vrindavan
  4. (d) Namsai
Answer and solution
Q149

In February 2024, Government of India has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and :

  1. (a) Myanmar
  2. (b) Bhutan
  3. (c) Bangladesh
  4. (d) Nepal
Answer and solution
Q150

Who among the following is the author of the book Why Bharat Matters ?

  1. (a) L.K. Advani
  2. (b) S. Jaishankar
  3. (c) Mohan Bhagwat
  4. (d) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer and solution