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NDA 2 2024 GAT Question Paper with Solutions

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Questions.

Directions · Q1 to Q5

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

Q1

All human beings are fallible

  1. (a) frail
  2. (b) erring
  3. (c) mortal
  4. (d) perfect
Answer and solution
Q2

His words were vague

  1. (a) identical
  2. (b) obscure
  3. (c) precise
  4. (d) imperceptible
Answer and solution
Q3

She performed all her duties conscientiously

  1. (a) assiduously
  2. (b) carelessly
  3. (c) painstakingly
  4. (d) scrupulously
Answer and solution
Q4

These risks are incidental to the work of a firefighter

  1. (a) essential
  2. (b) adventitious
  3. (c) serendipitous
  4. (d) subsidiary
Answer and solution
Q5

She has always been disdainful of poor people

  1. (a) reverential
  2. (b) derisive
  3. (c) supercilious
  4. (d) insolent
Answer and solution

Directions · Q6 to Q15

In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Passage · Q6 to Q15

Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ________ (6) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, ________ (7) plants and animals ________ (8) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. ________ (9) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (10) to adverse conditions, ________ (11) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many ________ (12) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they ________ (13) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant ________ (14) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (15) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.

Q6

Select the most appropriate word for blank (6) :

  1. (a) independent
  2. (b) dependent
  3. (c) relevant
  4. (d) consequent
Answer and solution
Q7

Select the most appropriate word for blank (7) :

  1. (a) the
  2. (b) both
  3. (c) some
  4. (d) among
Answer and solution
Q8

Select the most appropriate group of words for blank (8) :

  1. (a) had been continuously subjected
  2. (b) will be continuously subject
  3. (c) continuously subjected
  4. (d) are continuously subjected
Answer and solution
Q9

Select the most appropriate word for blank (9) :

  1. (a) Consequently
  2. (b) Inadvertently
  3. (c) Although
  4. (d) Since
Answer and solution
Q10

Select the most appropriate word for blank (10) :

  1. (a) withdrawal
  2. (b) tolerance
  3. (c) adaptable
  4. (d) compliance
Answer and solution
Q11

Select the most appropriate word for blank (11) :

  1. (a) and
  2. (b) with
  3. (c) by
  4. (d) upon
Answer and solution
Q12

Select the most appropriate word for blank (12) :

  1. (a) eras
  2. (b) epochs
  3. (c) periods
  4. (d) generations
Answer and solution
Q13

Select the most appropriate group of words for blank (13) :

  1. (a) had selected
  2. (b) have selected
  3. (c) are selected
  4. (d) might select
Answer and solution
Q14

Select the most appropriate word for blank (14) :

  1. (a) whichever
  2. (b) whom
  3. (c) that
  4. (d) whenever
Answer and solution
Q15

Select the most appropriate word for blank (15) :

  1. (a) heated
  2. (b) irrigated
  3. (c) showered
  4. (d) deserted
Answer and solution

Directions · Q16 to Q25

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.

Q16

Preeti suggests

  1. (a) that I ask to your advice
  2. (b) that I had asked your advice
  3. (c) that I can have asked your advice
  4. (d) that I ask your advice
Answer and solution
Q17

We saw

  1. (a) the older of all monuments in the city
  2. (b) the old of all monuments in the city
  3. (c) the oldest monument in the city
  4. (d) an oldest of all monuments in the city
Answer and solution
Q18

Since you have been touring all day

  1. (a) you must be tired
  2. (b) you ought to have been tired
  3. (c) you could had been tired
  4. (d) you might not be tired
Answer and solution
Q19

His condition is serious, but

  1. (a) it should be worse
  2. (b) it ought to be worse
  3. (c) it could be worse
  4. (d) it had been going to be worse
Answer and solution
Q20

I hope the bus comes soon because

  1. (a) we waited for half an hour
  2. (b) we have been waiting for half an hour
  3. (c) we waiting for half an hour
  4. (d) we could have been waiting for half an hour
Answer and solution
Q21

Someone

  1. (a) has spilt juice on the sofa
  2. (b) should have spilt juice on the sofa
  3. (c) have spilt juice on the sofa
  4. (d) would spilt juice on the sofa
Answer and solution
Q22

What would you do

  1. (a) if you found your lost toy ?
  2. (b) if you will have found your lost toy ?
  3. (c) if you would found your lost toy ?
  4. (d) if you have find your lost toy ?
Answer and solution
Q23

If I were you

  1. (a) I shouldn’t buy that dress
  2. (b) I wouldn’t buy that dress
  3. (c) I weren’t buying that dress
  4. (d) I mustn’t buying that dress
Answer and solution
Q24

I wish

  1. (a) I could help you
  2. (b) I ought to help you
  3. (c) I did help you
  4. (d) I must help you
Answer and solution
Q25

The efforts of the security services have not been quite

  1. (a) upto the incredibility
  2. (b) up-take
  3. (c) up-tight
  4. (d) upto the mark
Answer and solution

Directions · Q26 to Q30

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q26

A white lie

  1. (a) An offensive way of describing something
  2. (b) To do something completely impossible
  3. (c) A lie that is absolutely and universally true
  4. (d) A lie that you tell to avoid hurting someone
Answer and solution
Q27

Bad blood

  1. (a) Feelings of hatred between people
  2. (b) A situation which goes from bad to worse
  3. (c) A fatal accident
  4. (d) To accept the unpleasant situation
Answer and solution
Q28

Count your blessings

  1. (a) to start to understand how badly something has affected you
  2. (b) an event which gradually becomes worse
  3. (c) to be grateful for good things in your life
  4. (d) something that you say in order to warn someone
Answer and solution
Q29

Have the last laugh

  1. (a) to be the worst example of something
  2. (b) to succeed when others thought that you would not
  3. (c) to solve all the problems of life
  4. (d) to laugh at someone secretly
Answer and solution
Q30

Sit on the fence

  1. (a) to make someone suddenly notice you
  2. (b) to fail completely
  3. (c) to delay making a decision
  4. (d) to behave very badly
Answer and solution

Directions · Q31 to Q35

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.

Q31

P : good quality elementary education conforming

Q : as a fundamental right of all children

R : the Right to Education Act (RTE) mandates

S : to the standards and norms specified in the Act

  1. (a) Q S P R
  2. (b) R P S Q
  3. (c) R Q S P
  4. (d) S Q P R
Answer and solution
Q32

P : the conflicts and disputes in their mind

Q : music not only relieves the burden

R : on children and the young

S : but also alleviates

  1. (a) Q R S P
  2. (b) P S R Q
  3. (c) Q P R S
  4. (d) P Q R S
Answer and solution
Q33

P : but it is virtually covered by a dome-shaped

Q : Antarctica is a continent

R : nearly twice as large as Australia

S : ice sheet nearly 2 miles thick

  1. (a) Q R P S
  2. (b) S P R Q
  3. (c) Q S P R
  4. (d) S Q R P
Answer and solution
Q34

P : the global economic weight from the advanced economies

Q : that there was a major shift in

R : and Central Bank Governors, in recognition of the fact

S : the G20 was formed in 1999, as a forum of Finance Ministers

  1. (a) S P Q R
  2. (b) P Q R S
  3. (c) Q R S P
  4. (d) S R Q P
Answer and solution
Q35

P : aquaculture nation in the world and

Q : India’s products are exported to many nations

R : fish producing and the second largest

S : India is the third largest

  1. (a) S R P Q
  2. (b) Q P R S
  3. (c) R P Q S
  4. (d) P Q R S
Answer and solution

Directions · Q36 to Q40

Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q36

Adders are the only poisonous snakes found across Britain

  1. (a) Noun
  2. (b) Adjective
  3. (c) Adverb
  4. (d) Determiner
Answer and solution
Q37

She spoke to him once since he has been in town

  1. (a) Adjective
  2. (b) Adverb
  3. (c) Conjunction
  4. (d) Preposition
Answer and solution
Q38

I don’t really want to go. Besides, it’s too late now

  1. (a) Adjective
  2. (b) Adverb
  3. (c) Preposition
  4. (d) Conjunction
Answer and solution
Q39

Look at that man over there

  1. (a) Adverb
  2. (b) Conjunction
  3. (c) Determiner
  4. (d) Article
Answer and solution
Q40

The plane is ready for take-off

  1. (a) Noun
  2. (b) Conjunction
  3. (c) Verb
  4. (d) Gerund
Answer and solution

Directions · Q41 to Q45

In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.

Passage · Q41 to Q45

We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.

Q41

What according to the passage is the ‘unwelcome form of the globalization’ ?

  1. Globalization of the diseases

  2. Elusive goal of globalization

  3. History of fatal diseases

  4. Selective use of antibiotics

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2, 3 and 4
  3. (c) 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 4
Answer and solution
Q42

According to the passage, globalisation of health has become imperative due to

  1. (a) the globalisation of diseases
  2. (b) public health intervention
  3. (c) the creation of new medical systems
  4. (d) the indiscriminate use of antibiotics
Answer and solution
Q43

According to the passage, resurgent diseases are affected by :

  1. Medical practices

  2. Overuse of antibiotics

  3. Emergence of new strains

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q44

According to the passage, many new diseases are emerging due to change in land use because

  1. (a) humans are coming in contact with unfamiliar viruses
  2. (b) urbanisation makes pathogens proliferate
  3. (c) humans become adaptive and pass on their genes to related bacteria by way of plasmid transfer
  4. (d) humans are inadvertently releasing new viruses
Answer and solution
Q45

What is the meaning of the word “epidemiology” in the passage ?

  1. (a) The historical study of the spread of diseases
  2. (b) The scientific study of the spread and control of diseases
  3. (c) The scientific study of the invention and uses of drugs
  4. (d) The scientific study of the uses of drugs
Answer and solution

Directions · Q46 to Q50

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q46

Sages and seers have cautioned that the path towards enlightenment is full of illusory traps

  1. (a) reasoned
  2. (b) admitted
  3. (c) warned
  4. (d) refused
Answer and solution
Q47

The officer reported the details of the mission in a monotonous manner

  1. (a) dull
  2. (b) happy
  3. (c) disturbed
  4. (d) enthusiastic
Answer and solution
Q48

There are many elusive questions in philosophy

  1. (a) clear
  2. (b) baffling
  3. (c) paramount
  4. (d) truthful
Answer and solution
Q49

Cleaning this mess is a mammoth task

  1. (a) huge
  2. (b) quick
  3. (c) easy
  4. (d) intelligent
Answer and solution
Q50

The police department’s image was tarnished after the high-profile murder case

  1. (a) enhanced
  2. (b) tainted
  3. (c) restored
  4. (d) assigned
Answer and solution
Q51Not scored: no correct option as printed

Which one of the following statements about lysosomes is NOT correct ?

  1. (a) They are waste disposal system of the cell
  2. (b) They breakdown all inorganic materials
  3. (c) These are also referred to as “suicidal bags”
  4. (d) Lysosomes stop entry of foreign materials
Answer and solution
Q52

Which of the following two cell organelles have their own genetic material ?

  1. (a) Endoplasmic reticulum and plastids
  2. (b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
  3. (c) Mitochondria and plastids
  4. (d) Lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
Answer and solution
Q53

Which one among the following tissues help to connect two bones ?

  1. (a) Tendons
  2. (b) Ligaments
  3. (c) Areolar tissue
  4. (d) Cartilage
Answer and solution
Q54

Which one among the following is the source of energy in cells ?

  1. (a) ADP
  2. (b) ATP
  3. (c) AMP
  4. (d) NAD
Answer and solution
Q55

In which one among the following the vegetative propagation takes place through Eye Buds ?

  1. (a) Potato
  2. (b) Ginger
  3. (c) Onion
  4. (d) Sugarcane
Answer and solution
Q56

The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called

  1. (a) Osmosis
  2. (b) Brownian motion
  3. (c) Diffusion
  4. (d) Conductance
Answer and solution
Q57

Which one among the following separation techniques is used for blood tests in diagnostic laboratories ?

  1. (a) Filtration
  2. (b) Chromatography
  3. (c) Centrifugation
  4. (d) Crystallization
Answer and solution
Q58Not scored: no correct option as printed

Which one among the following elements is polyatomic ?

  1. (a) Phosphorus
  2. (b) Sulphur
  3. (c) Chlorine
  4. (d) Aluminium
Answer and solution
Q59

Which of the following anions has a valency of −3-3 ?

  1. (a) Nitride
  2. (b) Nitrate
  3. (c) Sulphide
  4. (d) Sulphate
Answer and solution
Q60

The mass of 0.5 mole0.5\text{ mole} of N2N_{2} gas is

  1. (a) 7 g7\text{ g}
  2. (b) 14 g14\text{ g}
  3. (c) 21 g21\text{ g}
  4. (d) 28 g28\text{ g}
Answer and solution
Q61

The chemical reaction :

2AgCl(s)→2Ag(s)+Cl2(g)2AgCl (s)\to 2Ag (s)+Cl_{2} (g)

takes place

  1. (a) in dark
  2. (b) in sunlight
  3. (c) on heating
  4. (d) under high pressure
Answer and solution
Q62

Which one among the following is commonly used as an ‘anti-skinning agent’ in paints ?

  1. (a) Gelatin
  2. (b) N-methyl pyrrolidone
  3. (c) Pyridine
  4. (d) Polyhydroxy phenol
Answer and solution
Q63

Two resistances of 5.0 Ω5.0\ Ω and 7.0 Ω7.0\ Ω are connected in series and the combination is connected in parallel with a resistance of 36.0 Ω36.0\ Ω. The equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors is

  1. (a) 24.0 Ω24.0\ Ω
  2. (b) 12.0 Ω12.0\ Ω
  3. (c) 9.0 Ω9.0\ Ω
  4. (d) 6.0 Ω6.0\ Ω
Answer and solution
Q64

Shown in the figure are two hollow cubes C1C_{1} and C2C_{2} of negligible mass partially filled (depicted by darkened area) with liquids of densities ρ1\rho_{1} and ρ2\rho_{2}, respectively, floating in water (density ρW\rho_{W}). The relationship between ρ1,ρ2\rho_{1},\rho_{2} and ρW\rho_{W} is

Figure for Q64

  1. (a) ρ2<ρW<ρ1\rho_{2}<\rho_{W}<\rho_{1}
  2. (b) ρ2<ρ1<ρW\rho_{2}<\rho_{1}<\rho_{W}
  3. (c) ρ1<ρ2<ρW\rho_{1}<\rho_{2}<\rho_{W}
  4. (d) ρ1<ρW<ρ2\rho_{1}<\rho_{W}<\rho_{2}
Answer and solution
Q65

An astronaut whose weight on the Earth is 600 N600\text{ N} experiences weightlessness on International Space Station orbiting around the Earth. It means that

  1. (a) acceleration of the astronaut is zero
  2. (b) normal reaction of the space-station floor on the astronaut is zero
  3. (c) gravitational pull of earth on the astronaut is zero
  4. (d) space station applies a centrifugal force on the astronaut
Answer and solution
Q66

Which of the following statements give characteristics of contact forces ?

  1. It appears between an object when it is in contact with some other object

  2. It satisfies the third law of motion

  3. It may appear between a pair of solid and fluid

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q67

Which one among the following figures correctly represents the ray diagram ? (Consider the lens to be thin)

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q68

Lightning is due to

  1. (a) The flow of charges between different parts of the cloud
  2. (b) The short-circuiting of charges between the upper and lower surfaces of the cloud
  3. (c) The collection of positively charged particles on the base and collection of negatively charged particles at the top of the cloud
  4. (d) The induction of positive charge on the ground below the negative charge at the base of the cloud
Answer and solution
Q69

In which one among the following situations, the bulb ⊗⊗ would glow the most ? (Consider all batteries are the same)

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q70

Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ?

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q71

Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class ?

  1. (a) Option (a)
  2. (b) Option (b)
  3. (c) Option (c)
  4. (d) Option (d)
Answer and solution
Q72

For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltage (V)(V) and current (I)(I) is

Figure for Q72

  1. (a) V=900 V; I=18 AV=900\text{ V};\ I=18\text{ A}
  2. (b) V=300 V; I=5.5 AV=300\text{ V};\ I=5.5\text{ A}
  3. (c) V=600 V; I=1 AV=600\text{ V};\ I=1\text{ A}
  4. (d) V=300 V; I=2 AV=300\text{ V};\ I=2\text{ A}
Answer and solution
Q73

Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India ?

  1. (a) Kuru
  2. (b) Kasi
  3. (c) Gandhar
  4. (d) Avanti
Answer and solution
Q74

Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished ?

  1. (a) Lord Mountbatten
  2. (b) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
  3. (c) Lord Wavell
  4. (d) Lord Linlithgow
Answer and solution
Q75

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India ?

  1. To increase production and offering opportunities to all for employment

  2. To make assessment of all resources of the country

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q76

Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct ?

  1. The First and Ninth five year plans accorded high priority to agriculture

  2. The Third Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar Model

  3. Seventh Plan focused on food, work and productivity

  4. The Ninth five year plan emphasized on massive investments in public sector

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3
  3. (c) 3 and 4
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer and solution
Q77

Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India ?

  1. Bombay Plan

  2. Peoples Plan

  3. Sarvodaya Plan

  4. Gandhian Plan

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 3 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and solution
Q78

Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as

  1. (a) Current fallow
  2. (b) Fallow other than current fallow
  3. (c) Culturable waste land
  4. (d) Barren and waste land
Answer and solution
Q79

Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?

  1. (a) Climate is humid, tropical coastal climate
  2. (b) Maximum rainfall occurs between March and April
  3. (c) Andaman and Nicobar islands are separated by 10 degree10\text{ degree} Channel which is 150 Km150\text{ Km} wide
  4. (d) Islands are inhabited by Negrito tribes
Answer and solution
Q80

Which one among the following local winds is NOT related to Mediterranean Sea ?

  1. (a) Harmattan
  2. (b) Khamsin
  3. (c) Sirocco
  4. (d) Mistral
Answer and solution
Q81

Which one among the following is a landlocked water body ?

  1. (a) Mediterranean Sea
  2. (b) Black Sea
  3. (c) Red Sea
  4. (d) Caspian Sea
Answer and solution
Q82

Which one among the following statements with reference to Benguela current is NOT correct ?

  1. (a) It influences the climate of the West coast of North Africa
  2. (b) It is a cold current
  3. (c) Its direction is from South to North
  4. (d) It flows in the Atlantic Ocean
Answer and solution
Q83

The lowest part of most bolsons is occupied by a landform called playa. Which category of landform formation does it represent ?

  1. (a) Fluvial landforms
  2. (b) Arid landforms
  3. (c) Glacial landforms
  4. (d) Periglacial landforms
Answer and solution
Q84

Which one among the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D in humans ?

  1. (a) Beriberi
  2. (b) Scurvy
  3. (c) Rickets
  4. (d) Pneumonia
Answer and solution
Q85

Which one among the following combinations most appropriately represent the components of balanced diet ?

  1. (a) Carbohydrate, vitamins, proteins, fat, minerals, fibres and water
  2. (b) Carbohydrate, vitamins, proteins, fat and minerals
  3. (c) Carbohydrate, vitamins, proteins, minerals and water
  4. (d) Vitamins, proteins, fat, minerals, fibres and water
Answer and solution
Q86

In which part or organ of human body cartilage is NOT found ?

  1. (a) Nose
  2. (b) Trachea
  3. (c) Bronchiole
  4. (d) Knee joint
Answer and solution
Q87

Which part of nephron of the human kidney is responsible for filtration of blood for excretion ?

  1. (a) Collecting duct
  2. (b) Renal vein
  3. (c) Ureter
  4. (d) Bowman’s capsule
Answer and solution
Q88

Organisms of which of the following phylum are called sponges ?

  1. (a) Coelenterata
  2. (b) Platyhelminthes
  3. (c) Porifera
  4. (d) Echinodermata
Answer and solution
Q89

A point object is placed at the centre of curvature of a spherical concave mirror. Which one among the following would be the correct location of image formed ?

  1. (a) At infinity
  2. (b) At the centre of curvature
  3. (c) At the focal point
  4. (d) Between the focal point and the centre of curvature
Answer and solution
Q90

Which one among the following is correct for a person suffering from myopia ?

  1. (a) The person can see near objects clearly
  2. (b) The person can see distant objects clearly
  3. (c) The person cannot distinguish colours
  4. (d) The person can neither see near objects nor distant objects clearly
Answer and solution
Q91

A vehicle starts moving along a straight line path from rest. In first tt seconds it moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s22\text{ m/s}^{2} and then in next 10 seconds10\text{ seconds} it moves with an acceleration of 5 m/s25\text{ m/s}^{2}. The total distance travelled by the vehicle is 550 m550\text{ m}. The value of time tt is

  1. (a) 10 s10\text{ s}
  2. (b) 13 s13\text{ s}
  3. (c) 20 s20\text{ s}
  4. (d) 25 s25\text{ s}
Answer and solution
Q92

A pumpkin weighs 7.5 N7.5\text{ N}. On submerging it completely in water, 34 L\frac{3}{4}\text{ L} of water gets displaced. The acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pumpkin was weighed is 10 m/s210\text{ m/s}^{2}. Which one of the following is the correct value of the density of the pumpkin ?

  1. (a) 10 kg/m310\text{ kg/m}^{3}
  2. (b) 100 kg/m3100\text{ kg/m}^{3}
  3. (c) 1000 kg/m31000\text{ kg/m}^{3}
  4. (d) 10000 kg/m310000\text{ kg/m}^{3}
Answer and solution
Q93

An incandescent electric bulb converts 20%20\% of its power consumption into light, and the remaining power is dissipated as heat. The bulb’s filament has a resistance of 200 Ω200\ Ω and 2 A2\text{ A} current flows through it. If the bulb remains ON for 10 h10\text{ h} and the rate of electricity charge is ₹5/unit5/\text{unit}, then which among the following is the correct amount for the money spent on producing light ?

  1. (a) ₹55
  2. (b) ₹66
  3. (c) ₹77
  4. (d) ₹88
Answer and solution
Q94

Which one of the following statements best defines the concept of heat ?

  1. (a) The transformation of energy from one form to another
  2. (b) The conversion of energy into mass and vice-versa due to temperature difference
  3. (c) The transfer of energy due to temperature difference
  4. (d) The change in volume of a substance with temperature
Answer and solution
Q95

The masses of two planets are in the ratio of 1:71:7. The ratio between their diameters is 2:12:1. The ratio of forces which they exert on each other is

  1. (a) 1:71:7
  2. (b) 7:17:1
  3. (c) 1:11:1
  4. (d) 2:12:1
Answer and solution
Q96

A car weighs 1000 kg1000\text{ kg}. It is moving with a uniform velocity of 72 km/h72\text{ km/h} towards a straight road. The driver suddenly presses the brakes. The car stops in 0.2 s0.2\text{ s}. The retarding force applied on the car to stop it is

  1. (a) 100 N100\text{ N}
  2. (b) 1000 N1000\text{ N}
  3. (c) 10 kN10\text{ kN}
  4. (d) 100 kN100\text{ kN}
Answer and solution
Q97

There is a ball of mass 320 g320\text{ g}. It has 625 J625\text{ J} potential energy when released freely from a height. The speed with which it will hit the ground is

  1. (a) 62.5 m/s62.5\text{ m/s}
  2. (b) 2.0 m/s2.0\text{ m/s}
  3. (c) 50 m/s50\text{ m/s}
  4. (d) 40 m/s40\text{ m/s}
Answer and solution
Q98

Starting from rest a vehicle accelerates at the rate of 2 m/s22\text{ m/s}^{2} towards east for 10 s10\text{ s}. It then stops suddenly. It then accelerates again at a rate of 42 m/s24\sqrt{2}\text{ m/s}^{2} for next 10 s10\text{ s} towards south and then again comes to rest. The net displacement of the vehicle from the starting point is

  1. (a) 100 m100\text{ m}
  2. (b) 200 m200\text{ m}
  3. (c) 300 m300\text{ m}
  4. (d) 400 m400\text{ m}
Answer and solution
Q99

Which one of the following statements about the Industrial Revolution is correct ?

  1. (a) Thomas Savery invented astrolabe
  2. (b) Thomas Newcomen invented chemical dyes
  3. (c) James Watt’s invention converted the steam engine from being a mere pump into one which would provide energy to power machines in factories
  4. (d) Mathew Boulton discovered the technique of refining gold of impurities
Answer and solution
Q100

The first cotton mill in British India which began production in 1856 was set up by

  1. (a) Ghanshyam Das Birla
  2. (b) Jamnalal Bajaj
  3. (c) Ambalal Sarabhai
  4. (d) C. N. Davar
Answer and solution
Q101

Consider the following statements about the Linguistic Reorganization of the States :

  1. Gandhiji, in 1948, had argued for the reorganization of provinces on a linguistic basis

  2. The Constituent Assembly recommended it to be incorporated in the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q102

Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, in Tamilnadu, C Rajagopalachari led a salt march from

  1. (a) Tirunelveli to Nagercoil
  2. (b) Kanchipuram to Mahabalipuram
  3. (c) Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on Tanjore coast
  4. (d) Chennai to Vellore
Answer and solution
Q103

Acharya Vinoba Bhave received the first donation of land under the Bhoodan Movement at

  1. (a) Ramgarh
  2. (b) Garhwa
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Pochampally
Answer and solution
Q104

Maize (makka) was introduced into India via

  1. (a) America and England
  2. (b) Africa and Spain
  3. (c) France and Russia
  4. (d) Portugal and Italy
Answer and solution
Q105

Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Passes and the Ranges in which they are located is/are correctly matched ?

Himalayan Pass Range
1. Zoji La Great Himalayas
2. Banihal Pass Pir Panjal Range
3. Photu La Ladakh Range
4. Khardung La Karakoram Range

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 2 only
  2. (b) 4
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q106

Which one among the following statements with reference to the black cotton soils of India is NOT correct ?

  1. (a) The black cotton soils are also called ‘Regur’
  2. (b) They are highly moisture retentive
  3. (c) They are rich in lime
  4. (d) These soils have less clay factor and hence can support a wide variety of crops and vegetables
Answer and solution
Q107

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Hydroelectric Power Plant) List II (State)
A. Doyang 1. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Gomuti 2. Assam
C. Kapili 3. Tripura
D. Ranganadi 4. Nagaland

Code :

A B C D

  1. (a) 4 3 2 1
  2. (b) 4 2 3 1
  3. (c) 1 2 3 4
  4. (d) 1 3 2 4
Answer and solution
Q108

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Tropical Cyclone) List II (Country)
A. Hurricanes 1. China
B. Willy Willy 2. Philippines
C. Baguio 3. Australia
D. Typhoons 4. USA

Code :

A B C D

  1. (a) 4 3 2 1
  2. (b) 1 2 3 4
  3. (c) 4 2 3 1
  4. (d) 1 3 2 4
Answer and solution
Q109

Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system :

  1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab

  2. The Satluj is a classic example of an antecedent river

  3. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus System

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 2 only
  2. (b) 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2
  4. (d) 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q110

Which one of the following is an example of both an igneous as well as a metamorphic rock ?

  1. (a) Gabbro
  2. (b) Geyserite
  3. (c) Gneissoid
  4. (d) Granite
Answer and solution
Q111

Which one of the following is correct ?

  1. (a) Pyroxene is commonly found in meteorites
  2. (b) Amphiboles form about 20%20\% of the Earth’s crust
  3. (c) Quartz is soluble in water
  4. (d) The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word kelimentum
Answer and solution
Q112

Which one among the following processes is NOT part of chemical weathering ?

  1. (a) Solution
  2. (b) Hydration
  3. (c) Reduction
  4. (d) Thawing
Answer and solution
Q113

What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom ?

  1. (a) 22
  2. (b) 44
  3. (c) 88
  4. (d) 1616
Answer and solution
Q114

At which temperature does liquid water show maximum density ?

  1. (a) 299 K299\text{ K}
  2. (b) 277 K277\text{ K}
  3. (c) 285 K285\text{ K}
  4. (d) 373 K373\text{ K}
Answer and solution
Q115

Which one among the following has valency of 3 ?

  1. (a) Carbon
  2. (b) Oxygen
  3. (c) Nitrogen
  4. (d) Sodium
Answer and solution
Q116

Which one among the following is an example of oxidation reaction ?

  1. (a) Freezing of water
  2. (b) Dissolving sugar in water
  3. (c) Rusting of iron
  4. (d) Boiling of petrol
Answer and solution
Q117

Which one among the following fertilizers is a source of nitrogen ?

  1. (a) Superphosphate
  2. (b) Potassium sulfate
  3. (c) Bone meal
  4. (d) Urea
Answer and solution
Q118

For Aluminium (AlAl) (atomic number : 1313, mass number : 2727), which one among the following statements is NOT correct ?

  1. (a) Number of electrons present in AlAl is 1313
  2. (b) Number of protons present in AlAl is 1313
  3. (c) Number of neutrons present in AlAl is 1414
  4. (d) The valency of AlAl is 22
Answer and solution
Q119

The elemental composition of diamond is

  1. (a) Carbon and Hydrogen
  2. (b) Carbon and Oxygen
  3. (c) Pure Carbon
  4. (d) Pure Silicon
Answer and solution
Q120

Which one among the following is an example of chemical change ?

  1. (a) Sublimation of camphor
  2. (b) Melting of ice
  3. (c) Heating of an iron rod
  4. (d) Mixing of NaOHNaOH and HClHCl
Answer and solution
Q121

Which one among the following is the correct focal length of a combination of lenses of power 2.5 D2.5\text{ D} and −2.0 D-2.0\text{ D} ?

  1. (a) +0.5 m+0.5\text{ m}
  2. (b) −0.5 m-0.5\text{ m}
  3. (c) +2.0 m+2.0\text{ m}
  4. (d) −2.0 m-2.0\text{ m}
Answer and solution
Q122

The AC mains domestic supply current in India changes direction in every

  1. (a) 50 s50\text{ s}
  2. (b) 150 s\frac{1}{50}\text{ s}
  3. (c) 100 s100\text{ s}
  4. (d) 1100 s\frac{1}{100}\text{ s}
Answer and solution
Q123Not scored: no correct option as printed

A block of mass 2.0 kg2.0\text{ kg} slides on a rough horizontal plane surface. Let the speed of the block at a particular instant is 10 m/s10\text{ m/s}. It comes to rest after travelling a distance of 20 m20\text{ m}. Which one of the following could be the magnitude of the frictional force ?

  1. (a) 10 N10\text{ N}
  2. (b) 20 N20\text{ N}
  3. (c) 40 N40\text{ N}
  4. (d) 50 N50\text{ N}
Answer and solution
Q124

Given below are the four cases in which certain heat transfer is taking place :

  1. Ice is melting in a glass full of water

  2. Water is boiling in an open container

  3. A metal rod is heated in a furnace

  4. A cup of coffee is allowed to cool on a table

In which of the above cases, the Newton’s Law of Cooling is applicable ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 4 only
  3. (c) 1 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and solution
Q125Not scored: no correct option as printed

The figure given below shows the direction of the two forces PP and QQ acting on a skydiver :

Figure for Q125

Which one among the following statements is correct about the two forces ?

  1. (a) Force PP is caused by the gravity and force QQ is caused by the friction
  2. (b) When the force PP is bigger than the force QQ, the speed of the skydiver remains the same
  3. (c) After the parachute opens, force PP remains the same while force QQ increases
  4. (d) After the parachute opens, force PP decreases while force QQ increases
Answer and solution
Q126

Vijayanagara rulers claimed that they were ruling on behalf of

  1. (a) Lord Murugan
  2. (b) Lord Venkateshwara
  3. (c) Shri Virupaksha
  4. (d) Shri Vallabha
Answer and solution
Q127

Domingo Paes describes a king in these words : ‘Of medium height, and of fair complexion and good figure, rather fat than thin; he has on his face signs of smallpox’. Identify the king from the options given below.

  1. (a) Krishnadeva Raya
  2. (b) Ram Raya
  3. (c) Devaraya II
  4. (d) Devaraya I
Answer and solution
Q128

In which Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection are given ?

  1. (a) Ninth Schedule
  2. (b) Tenth Schedule
  3. (c) Eleventh Schedule
  4. (d) Sixth Schedule
Answer and solution
Q129

Consider the following statements :

  1. The duties of the Attorney General of India are to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred to or assigned to him by the President of India

  2. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary Law Officer of the country, who assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitor Generals of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q130

Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament ?

  1. Public Accounts Committee

  2. Estimates Committee

  3. Committee on Public Undertakings

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 1 and 3
  3. (c) 2 only
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer and solution
Q131

In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or without any recommendation, within the stipulated time of

  1. (a) 12 days
  2. (b) 21 days
  3. (c) 14 days
  4. (d) 30 days
Answer and solution
Q132

Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct ?

  1. Freedoms under this Article are not absolute

  2. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of freedoms under this Article

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q133

Which of the following is NOT a part of the five principles enshrined in the ‘Panchsheel’ agreement signed by India and China in 1954 ?

  1. (a) Mutual non-aggression
  2. (b) Mutual non-interference
  3. (c) Peaceful coexistence
  4. (d) Cultural cooperation
Answer and solution
Q134

Freedom Fighter Kanaklata Barua sacrificed her life while participating in

  1. (a) Rowlatt Satyagraha
  2. (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
  3. (c) Civil Disobedience Movement
  4. (d) Quit India Movement
Answer and solution
Q135

Where is the Coriolis Effect the largest ?

  1. (a) At the Equator
  2. (b) At the Tropic of Capricorn and Tropic of Cancer
  3. (c) At the North Pole
  4. (d) At 45 degree latitude in each hemisphere
Answer and solution
Q136

In which among the following states in India, the Sun rays are never perpendicular ?

  1. Bihar

  2. Chhattisgarh

  3. Manipur

  4. Rajasthan

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 1 and 3
  3. (c) 2 and 3
  4. (d) 2 and 4
Answer and solution
Q137

Which of the following is/are east flowing rivers in India ?

  1. Palar

  2. Periyar

  3. Pennar

  4. Kalinadi

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3
  3. (c) 2 and 4
  4. (d) 4 only
Answer and solution
Q138

Which of the following tributaries is/are correctly matched with the Deccan Rivers ?

Tributary River
1. Bhavani Krishna
2. Kabini Kaveri
3. Manjra Godavari
4. Bhima Mahanadi

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 2 and 3
  3. (c) 1 and 3
  4. (d) 3 and 4
Answer and solution
Q139

Which one of the following is found in appreciable amount in Laterite soil in India ?

  1. (a) Calcium
  2. (b) Phosphate
  3. (c) Potash
  4. (d) Nitrogen
Answer and solution
Q140

Consider the following statements regarding River Brahmaputra :

  1. It rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar

  2. It takes a “U” turn near Namcha Barwa and enters India through a gorge

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q141

“Not me, but you” is the motto of which one of the following youth organizations/schemes ?

  1. (a) Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram
  2. (b) National Service Scheme (NSS)
  3. (c) National Young Leaders Programme
  4. (d) National Discipline Scheme (NDS)
Answer and solution
Q142

“Fitness ka dose, aadha ghanta roz” campaign, is associated with

  1. (a) Khelo India
  2. (b) Fit India Programme
  3. (c) Mera Yuva Bharat
  4. (d) Healthy Heart Programme
Answer and solution
Q143

Consider the following statements :

  1. Kozhikode has been included in UNESCO’s creative cities network as the ‘City of Music’

  2. Garba of Gujarat has been declared by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage

  3. Gwalior has been included in UNESCO’s creative cities network as the ‘City of Literature’

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. (a) None
  2. (b) 1
  3. (c) 2
  4. (d) 3
Answer and solution
Q144

ASEAN-India Millet Festival-2023, organized by Indian Mission to ASEAN, was held in which one of the following countries ?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Indonesia
  3. (c) Malaysia
  4. (d) Thailand
Answer and solution
Q145

Consider the following statements :

  1. First Indian Military Heritage festival was inaugurated in October 2023 in Pune

  2. First Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was flagged off in India in Bangalore

  3. South Africa chaired the 15th BRICS Summit held in 2023

  4. Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra was flagged off in 2023 from Jharkhand

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) 4
Answer and solution
Q146

Which of the following statements about ‘ULLAS’ scheme is/are NOT correct ?

  1. It’s a Centrally Sponsored scheme which aims at securing childhood for street children

  2. It’s a scheme aligned with National Education Policy-2020 which aims at empowering adults aged 15 or above who could not get due schooling

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and solution
Q147

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ?

  1. (a) It was formed out of the signing of the Washington Treaty
  2. (b) Russia is not a member of this organization
  3. (c) It derives its authority from the UN Charter
  4. (d) Finland is its latest member
Answer and solution
Q148

In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a country to construct a 20 feet Bailey bridge. Identify the country.

  1. (a) Nepal
  2. (b) Bangladesh
  3. (c) Bhutan
  4. (d) Myanmar
Answer and solution
Q149

Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA ?

  1. (a) Yudhabhyas
  2. (b) Vajra Prahar
  3. (c) Malabar
  4. (d) Varuna
Answer and solution
Q150

Consider the following statements :

  1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index Report-2023

  2. Global Maritime India Summit-2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam

  3. ‘Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047’ was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. (a) None
  2. (b) 1
  3. (c) 2
  4. (d) 3
Answer and solution