Combined Defense Services (CDS I) exam held on 14 Feb 2016 which is conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Several candidates appeared in this examination and they want to check the answer key on Internet in a several educational website. Official Answer Key will be released on official website UPSC

Before Official Answer Key Solved paper team providing you an unofficial Answer Key. This answer key prepared by talented teachers with their experience. Candidates can check your answers of questions and calculate their marks in the examination.

Board of Examination Name:  Union Public Service commission (UPSC)
Post vacancy:  Combined Defense services (CDS)
Exam Date:  14 Feb 2016
Official Website: UPSC
Official Answer key: Available Soon
Unofficial Answer key: Available below

UPSC CDS I Answer key 14 February 2016:

General Knowledge Answers

  1. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol etc., Which very closely resemble cholesterol.
    These plant sterols are referred as:
    (a) Phytosterols
    (b) Calciferols
    (c) Ergocalciferols
    (d) Lumisterols
  2. With Which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Sutlaj rivers?
    (a) Pakistan
    (b) China
    (c) Bangladesh
    (d) Nepal
  3. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level?
    (a) East Central Railway
    (b) South Eastern Railway
    (c) South Western Railway
    (d) West Central Railway
  4. Stalactites and stalagmites are feature of:
    (a) glacial topography
    (b) volcanic topography
    (c) karst topography
    (d) fluvial topography
  5. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?
    (a) Mars-Venus-Earth-Mercury-Uranus
    (b) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Earth-Uranus
    (c) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Uranus-Earth
    (d) Venus-Mercury-Mars-Earth-Uranus
  6. In artificial insemination (AI) process, which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female?
    (a) Egg only
    (b) Fertilized egg
    (c) Sperm only
    (d) Egg and sperm
  7. Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to:
    Introduction of new DNA
    2. Removal of existing DNA
    3. Introduction of RNA
    4. Introduction of new traits
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 1, 2 and 4
  8. Which one of the following statements is correct? The velocity of sound:
    (a) does not depend upon the nature of media
    (b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids
    (c) is maximum in solids and minimum in liquids
    (d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases
  9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature
    (b) Sound waves having frequency below 20Hz are known as ultrasonic waves
    (c) Sound waves having higher amplitudes are louder
    (d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp
  10. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting?
    (a) Vitamin A
    (b) Vitamin B
    (c) Vitamin D
    (d) Vitamin K
  11. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia. Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B12. Human must obtain all their vitamin B12 form their diet. The complexing metal ion in Vitamin B12 is:
    (a) Mg2+ (Magnesium ion)
    (b) Fe2+ (Iron ion)
    (c) Co3+ (Cobalt ion)
    (d) Zn2+ (Zinc ion)
  12. Consider the following statements:
    Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vendhyas
    2. The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  13. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in:
    (a) Pirotan Island
    (b) Rameswaram
    (c) Ganga Sagar Island
    (d) Port Blair
  14. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
    The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3
    2. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4
    3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4
    4. The earth is nearest to the Sun Aphelion which generally occurs on January 3
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 4
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) 1 and 2
  15. Which one of the following islands is of volacanic origin?
    (a) Reunion island
    (b) Andaman & Nicobar islands
    (c) Lakshadweep island
    (d) Maldives
  16. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is Glucose?
    (a) Carbohydrate
    (b) Protein
    (c) Fat
    (d) Nucleic acid
  17. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of:
    (a) Cytoplasm only
    (b) Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
    (c) Nucleoplasm only
    (d) Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles
  18. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in:
    development of high-yielding crops
    2. Modernization of irrigation infrastructure.
    3. Introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3
  19. A myopic person has a power of -1.25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his lens?
    (a) 50 cm and convex lens
    (b) 80 cm and convex lens
    (c) 50 cm and concave lens
    (d) 80 cm and concave lens
  20. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0o The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0oC is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g):
    (a) 750.6 J
    (b) 83.4 J
    (c) 33360 J
    (d) 3.336 J
  21. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?
    (a) Oxytocin
    (b) Corticotropin
    (c) Insulin
    (d) Cortisone
  22. Which one of the following is an example of chemical change?
    (a) Burning of paper
    (b) Magnetization of soft iron
    (c) dissolution of cane sugar in water
    (d) Preparation of ice cubes from water
  23. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?
    (a) Atmospheric disturbance
    (b) Change in marine water density
    (c) Melting of icebergs
    (d) Melting of ice sheets
  24. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra:
    Lohit
    2. Tista
    3. Subansiri
    4. Sankosh
    Arrange the above rivers from west to east:
    (a) 2-4-3-1
    (b) 2-3-4-1
    (c) 4-2-3-1
    (d) 3-1-2-4
  25. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left?
    (a) Difference in the water masses of northern and southern hemisphere
    (b) Temperature and pressure variations
    (c) Inclined axis of the Earth
    (d) Rotation of the Earth
  26. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has:
    (a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
    (b) abnormally low temperature and pressure
    (c) clear sky and lowest temperature
    (d) dense cloud cover and low pressure
  27. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
    Acid rain reacts with building made from limestone
    2.Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to acid rain
    3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  28. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct?
    (a) The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar magnet is larger than that of the south-pole
    (b) When a piece of bar mangnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the north and south poles get separated
    (c) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, two new bar magnets are formed
    (d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and opposite in nature
  29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) Hydrogen is an element
    (b) Hydrogen is the lightest element
    (c) Hydrogen has not isotopes
    (d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture
  30. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass numbers
    (b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers
    (c) All the atoms of an element have same number of protons
    (d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons
  31. Which of the following statements regarding chemical industry in India is/are correct?
    Chemical industry in one of the oldest industries in India.
    2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry
    3. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  32. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica is/are correct?
    The first scientific base station in Antarctic was Dakshin Gangotri
    2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp
    3. The Maitri staion is manned throughout the year for scientific activities
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d0 1, 2 and 3
  33. The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for domestic and industrial purposes. Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?
    (a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of different industries
    (b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only
    (c) Raw material for synthetic rubber is easily available
    (d) Natural rubber is not durable
  34. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 s. If the sound moves with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?
    (a) 102 m
    (b) 11 m
    (c) 51 m
    (d) 30 m
  35. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the mean sea level:
    Mussoorie
    2. Shimla
    3. Ooty
    4. Darjeeling
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 3-2-4-1
    (b) 3-1-4-2
    (c) 2-3-4-1
    (d) 2-4-1-3
  36. Consider the following statements:
    In Hind Swaraj Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society
    2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India
    Which of the statemetns given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  37. Which of the following is/are Constitutional Body/Bodies?
    National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
    2. National Commission for Women
    3. National Human Rights Commission
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  38. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?
    Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Mayanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the world’s population sent delegates
    2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decision affecting Asia
    3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  39. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture?
    (a) Amalananda Ghosh
    (b) Rakhaldas Banerji
    (c) Daya Ram Sahni
    (d) Sir John Marshall
  40. Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram?
    (a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture
    (b) Both are carved out from solid rocks
    (c) Both are Gupta period temples
    (d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings
  41. Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?
    The stories of Krishna
    2. Ragas and Raginis
    3. The deeds of Hamza
    4. The deeds of Babur
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 4 only
  42. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation?
    (a) Fourth Plan (1963-74)
    (b) Fifth Plan (1974-79
    (c) Sixth Plan (1980-85)
    (d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)
  43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Phillips Curve?
    It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation
    2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run
    3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  44. Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union?
    (a) Belarus
    (b) Russia
    (c) Kazakhstan
    (d) Uzbekistan
  45. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in:
    (a) New Delhi, India (2012)
    (b) Durban, South Africa (2013)
    (c) Fortaleza, Brazil (2014)
    (d) Ufa, Russia (2015)
  46. Consider the following statements:
    Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems
    2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eight century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices
    Which of the statements given above is/ are corrects?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  47. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’
    Treasury Bill
    2. Credit Card
    3. Saving accounts and small time deposits
    4. Retain money market mutual funds
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 1, 3 and 4
  48. Which one of the following terms is used in Economic to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction?
    (a) Dumping
    (b) Hedging
    (c) Discounting
    (d) Deflating
  49. ‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy Awary winner in the category of documentary feature, is based on the life of:
    (a) Abraham Lincoln
    (b) Albern Einstein
    (c) Edward Snowden
    (d) Laura Poitras
  50. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 20115-16?
    (a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls
    (b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants
    (c) 180 days in advance ticket booking facility for pasengers
    (d) Bio-toilets
  51. Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discountinued?
    (a) Money Order
    (b) telegram
    (c) Postal Life Insurance
    (d) Inland Letter
  52. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year
    (a) 1986
    (b) 1992
    (c) 1996
    (d) 2003
  53. The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the:
    (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
    (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005
    (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003
    (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
  54. Consider the following statements:
    The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma
    2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Kongamana stupa
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  55. Consider the following statements:
    The province of Assam was created in the year 1911
    2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874
    Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  56. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India
    2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text
    3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 3 only
  57. Which of the following statements are correct?
    Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should related to their income or wealth
    2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from Government programmes
    3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families
    4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
    Wage Boards are tripartite in nature with representatives form workers employers and independent members
    2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  59. The rank of Major General in India Army is equivalent to:
    (a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force
    (b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy
    (c) Air Commondore in Indian Air Force
    (d) COmmondore in Indian Navy
  60. Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is no:
    (a) Communication satellite
    (b) Navigation satellite
    (c) Earth observation satellite
    (d) Juptier orbiter satellite
  61. Consider the following statements about the President of India :
    The President has the right to address and send massae to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information
    2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation
    3. All dicisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must communicated to the President
    Which of the statement given are correct?
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  62. In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Right of Diverce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India?
    (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum
    (b) Danial Latifi V. Union of India
    (c) Mary Roy v. State of Kerala
    (d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  63. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is / are true?
    The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha
    2. Rulers used the “Hindu Suratrana” to indicate their close links with Gods
    3. All the royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskriti and Tamil.
    4. Royal poetrait sculpture was now displayed in temples
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 4 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 1, 2, and 4
  64. Iqta in medieval India meant :
    (a) land assigned to religious personal for spiritual purposes
    (b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers
    (c) charity for educational and cultural activities
    (d) the rights of the zaminder
  65. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court?
    (a) Hamzanama
    (b) Razmnama
    (c) Baburnama
    (d) Tarikh – iAlfi
  66. Which one of the following is not a “Public Good” ?
    (a) Electricity
    (b) National Defence
    (c) Light House
    (d) Public Parks
  67. Which one the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956 – 57 to 1960 – 61)?
    (a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries
    (b) Large expansion of employment opportunities
    (c) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and increase agriculture production to meet the requirements of industry and exports
    (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power.
  68. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognized every person as a child below the age of :
    (a) 12 years
    (b) 14 years
    (c) 16 years
    (d) 18 years
  69. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?
    (a) Provide girls toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017
    (b) 100 percent girls enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020
    (c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
    (d) Train Elected Representatives Grassroot functionaries mobilize communities to improve CSR and promote girls education
  70. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Rashtiya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhyan (RUSA)?
    (a) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions
    (b) Ensure reformers in the affiliation, academic and examination systems
    (c) Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education
    (d)  Create an ambling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to dvote themselves to research and innovations
  71. Which one of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is /are correct?
    The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) & (5) of Articles 22 of Constitution of India
    2. The deteue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in Jail when the detention order was passed
    3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty – four hours without an odder other magistrate
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  72. A member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House If the Member :
    (a) Voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected
    (b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House
    (c) join a political party countey to the elected as an independent candidate
    (d) abstain from voting country to the direction by his/her political party
  73. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
    (a) English
    (b) Sanskrit
    (c) Urdu
    (d) Nepali
  74. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to ?
    (a) Avadh
    (b) Travancore
    (c) Vijayanagara
    (d) Ahom
  75. Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC:
    They record gifts made to religious institutions
    2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious result of the action of one person to another person
    which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Bothe 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  76. Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to individuals facing the risk of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension?
    (a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDCL)
    (b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
    (c) Triglyceride
    (d) Fatty acids
  77. Which one of the following pairs of vitamin and diseases is/arecorrectly matched?
    Vitamin A  :   Rickets
    2. Vitamin B1  : Beriberi
    3. Vitamin C    : Scurvy
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (s)  2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  78. The rate of change of moment of a body is equal to the resultant:
    (a) energy
    (b) power
    (c) force
    (d) impulse
  79. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because:
    (a) water helps air around the roof – top to absord the heat instantly
    (b) water has lower specific heat capacity
    (c) water is easily available
    (d) water has large latent heat of vaporization
  80. Consider the following map of India :
    Ques. 76
    The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the gollowing cash crop?
    (a) Cotton
    (b) Groundnut
    (c) Sugarcane
    (d) Tobacco
  81. Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of :
    (a) Shiwalik
    (b) Trans Himalaya
    (c) Central Himalaya
    (d) Lesser Himalaya
  82. Consider the following staemenet regarding laterite soil of India:
    Laterite soils are generally red in colour
    2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash
    3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP
    4. Tapioca soils are well nuts grow well this soil
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4
  83. Which one of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Mansoon climate is/are correct?
    Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer
    2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate
    3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  84. The handle of pressure cockers is made of plastic because it should be made non-conductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is :
    (a) Polythene
    (b) Terylene
    (c) Nylon
    (d) Bakelite
  85. Methyl Isocynate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbic factory for production of :
    (a) Dyes
    (b) Detergents
    (c) Explosives
    (d) Pesticides
  86. The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals Germplasm is the :
    Genetic resources
    2. Seeds or tissues for breeding
    3. Egg and sperm repository
    4. A germ cell’s determining zone
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 2 and 4
  87. Dengue virus is known to cause low planet count in blood of patient by :
    Interfering in the process of platelet production in bone marrow
    2. Infecting endothelian cells
    3. Binding with platelets
    4. Accumulating platelets in intenstine
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  88. The SI unit of mechanical power is :
    (a) Joule
    (b) Watt
    (c) Newton-second
    (d) Joule-second
  89. Two system are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if :
    (a) there can be a heat flow between them even are at different temperatures
    (b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures
    (c) there is no heat flow between them
    (d) their temperature are slightly different
  90. ‘German silver’ is used to make descorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments etc. The name is given because :
    (a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components
    (b) Germans were the first to use silver
    (c) its appearance is like silver
    (d) it is an alloy of silver
  91. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ?
    (a) Misl
    (b) Gurmata
    (c) Sardari
    (d) Rakhi
  92. Which of the statements given below is/are correct ?
    The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India
    2. In certain respects, the high court in India have been given more extensive power than the Supreme Court
    3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set up under the Constitution of India in 1950
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1 only
  93. The handle of pressure cockers is made of plastic because it should be made is/are the examples of Transfer Payments?
    Unemployment Allowance?
    2. Payment of Salary
    3. Social Sequrity Payments
    4. Old age Pension
    Select the correct answer the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (d) None of the above
  94. The Erawan Shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August 2015, is located at :
    (a) Singapore
    (b) Bangkok
    (c) Kuala Lumpur
    (d) Kabul
  95. Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015 ?
    (a) Jwala Gutta
    (b) Saina Nehwal
    (c) P. V. Sindhu
    (d) Madhumita Bisht
  96. Which one of the following Articles/Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils?
    (a) Eight Schedule
    (b) Article 370
    (c) Sixth Schedule
    (d) Article 250
  97. Which of the following statements with regards to UID/Aaadhar Card are correct?
    It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all residents of India
    2. It is an identify number along with the biometric information of the individuals
    3. It is national identify and citizenship card
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  98. Which of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?
    The CAG will hold officer for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term
    2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India
    3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in constitution with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
    4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 4
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 1 and 2 only
  99. Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by :
    (a) WTO
    (b) World Bank
    (c) UNDP
    (d) IMF
  100. Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct?
    (a) The observe and reverse, both had only the king’s portrait and date
    (b) The observe, both had only an image of a diety and date
    (c) The oberve generally had an image of a diety or a motif
    (d) The observe generally had king’s portrait and reserve always had a date
  101. The agrahara in early India was:
    (a) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins
    (b) the garland of flowers of Agar
    (c) the grant of land to offices and soldiers
    (d) land or village settled by Vaishya farmers
  102. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?
    The act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980
    2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the States/UT Governments
    3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  103. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with:
    (a) Kristina Mladenovic
    (b) Flavia Pennetta
    (c) Martina Hingis
    (d) Sania Mirza
  104. Who among the following is the winter of the World Food Prize (year 2015)?
    (a) Sanjaya Rajaram
    (b) Baldev Singh Dhillon
    (c) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed
    (d) Rajendra Singh Paroda
  105. In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?
    (a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
    (b) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980)
    (c) Dr. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983)
    (d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979)
  106. Shishu, Kishore and Tarun are the schemes of :
    (a) Regional Rural Banks
    (b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agenvy Ltd. (MUDRA)
    (c) Small Industries Development Bank of India
    (d) Industries Development Bank of India
  107. Consider the following statements:
    The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha
    2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  108. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with:
    (a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good govenance
    (b) reforms in the Indian Code and the criminal Justice System
    (c) creating an ombudsman in public life
    (d) devising new measure for urban governance and management
  109. As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order:
    Issued against judicial and quasi-jidicil authority
    2. To prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
    3. To restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  110. Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samugragupta described in Prayag Prashsti?
    (a) Sharp anf polished intellect
    (b) Accomplished sculptor
    (c) Fine musical performances
    (d) Poetical talent of a genius
  111. Kamadaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to :
    (a) Logic and Philosophy
    (b) Mathematic
    (c) Political morality
    (d) Grammar
  112. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is standerd textr on:
    (a) Mathematics
    (b) Surgery
    (c) Poetics
    (d) Linguistucs
  113. Which of the following statements are true with respect to the concept of “EFFICIENCY” as used in mainstream economics?
    Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganization of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off
    2. An economy is clearly inefficient if ti is inside the production possibility Frontier (PPF)
    3. Ar a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
    4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’ Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resorce allocation’
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
  114. The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in :
    (a) Jaipur
    (b) Suva
    (c) New Delhi
    (d) Port Meresby
  115. Which one of the following island nations went for parliamentary elections in the month of August 2015?
    (a) Maldieves
    (b) Fiji
    (c) Sri Lanka
    (d) Singapore
  116. Which one of the following island nations has faced severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?
    (a) China
    (b) Greece
    (c) Ireland
    (d) Belgium
  117. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence?
    Morarji Desai
    2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
    3. H. D. Gowda
    4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only
  118. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct?
    The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
    2. In Rajya Sabha,238 members are elected indirectly from the states and Union Territories
    3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only
  119. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?
    The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases
    2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session
    3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency
    4. The President has the power to nominate from the Anglo India community
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 1 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 3 and 4
  120. The followers of Gorakhnath were called :
    (a) Jogis
    (b) Nath-Panthis
    (c) Tantriks
    (d) Sanyasis

English Answers 

  1. (c) Q S R P
  2. (d) R Q S P 
  3. (b) R P S Q
  4. (b) P R Q S
  5. (a) Q R S P 
  6. (a) S R Q P 
  7. (b) P R Q S 
  8. (a) Q P R S
  9. (d) P Q S R
  10. (d) P R Q S
  11. The mounting pressure was so overwhelming that he ultimately ____to her wish
    (a) yielded in
    (b) gave in
    (c) cowed in
    (d) agreed in
  12. Authority _____ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user
    (a) prevails
    (b) entails
    (c) crumbles
    (d) waits
  13. In a developing country like India some industries will have to be brought within public _____ and control, for otherwise rapid growth of the economy may be impossible
    (a) perspective
    (b) hegemony
    (c) observation
    (d) ownership
  14. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelization the powerful current of the united mass movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national _____ for independence.
    (a) struggle
    (b) conflict
    (c) onslaught
    (d) march
  15. Because of his ___ habits, he could not save much money
    (a) extravagant
    (b) frugal
    (c) unsavoury
    (d) bad
  16. Socrates was ______ of spreading discount among young men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the old gods.
    (a) rebuked
    (b) disparaged
    (c) accused
    (d) demonised
  17. The robbers fell _______ amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot.
    (a) out
    (b) through
    (c) off
    (d) across
  18. A really sophisticated person would never be _____ enough to think that he is always right.
    (a) reverent
    (b) naïve
    (c) articulate
    (d) humble
  19. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to __________ accidents.
    (a) troublesome
    (b) final
    (c) great
    (d) gruesome
  20. Creative people are often ____ with their own uniqueness.
    (a) obsessed
    (b) deranged
    (c) unbalanced
    (d) dissatisfie
                                                                             Passage 1
    To avoid the various opining to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules will keep you, not from all errors, but from silly errors.
            If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple device of asking Mrs. Aristotle to keep her mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know, when in fact you do not, is a bad mistake to which we are all prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that thay do: but if I were writing a book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had seen one enjoying this diet. Aristotle, however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had seen one of them.
  21. The writer believe that
    (a) most people could avoid making foolish mistakes if they were clever
    (b) through observation we could avoid making many mistakes
    (c) Aristotle made many mistakes because he was not observant
    (d) All errors are caused by our own error in thinking
  22. With reference to the passage, which one of the following is the correct statement?
    (a) Aritotle was able to avoid the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men
    (b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men
    (c) Aristotle proved that women have fewer teeth by counting his wife’s teeth
    (d) Aristotle may have thought that women have fewer teeth because he never had never had a wife
  23. The writer says that if he was writing a book on hedgehos
    (a) he would maintain that they eat black beetles because he had been told so
    (b) he would first observe their eating habits
    (c) he would think it unnecessary to verify that they ate black beetles
    (d) he would make the statement that they ate black beetles and later verify it
  24. The writer is of the opening that
    (a) unicorn and salamanders were observe by ancient and medieval writers but were unknown to modern writers
    (b) ancient and medieval writers wrote authoritatively about unicorns and salamanders though they had never seen them
    (c) unicorns and salamanders do not exist
    (d) only those who had observed the habits of unicorns and salamanders wrote about them
  25. A ‘dogmatic statement’ in the context means a statement which is
    (a) convincing
    (b) proved
    (c) unquestionable
    (d) doubtful
                                                                     Passage  2
    Since I had nothing better to do, I decided to go to the market to buy a few handkerchiefs, the old ones had done vanishing. On the way I met an old friend of mine and I took him to a nearby restaurant for tea and snacks. Afterwards I went to the shop and selected a dozen handkerchiefs, I pulled out my purse to make the payment, and discovered that it was empty; I then realized that it was not my purse, it was a different purse altogether. How that happened is still a source of wonder to me and I refuse to believe that it was the work of my good old friend, for it was his purse that I held in my hand.
  26. The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because
    (a) he did not like the handkerchiefs
    (b) his friend did not have any handkerchiefs
    (c) the slop did not have any handkerchiefs
    (d) he had no money in the purse
  27. When he tried to take out the purse, he discovered that
    (a) it was not there
    (b) it was lost
    (c) it was a new purse
    (d) it was his friend’s purse
                                                                   Passage 3
    A profound terror, increase still by the darkness, the silence images, froze his waking images, froze his heart within him. He almost felt hair on end, when by straining his eyes to their utmost, he perceived through the shadows two faint yellows light. At first he attributed these lights to the reflection of his own pupils, but soon the vivid brilliance of the night him gradually to objects around him in the cave, and he beheld a huge animal lying but steps from him.
  28. The opening of the passage suggest that
    (a) darkness, silence and waking images added to his already being in profound terror
    (b) a profound terror increased the waking images in his frozen heart
    (c) the person was frightened by darkness and silence
    (d) a profound terror was caused in him by the silence and darkness of the night
  29. When he perceived through the shadows two faint lights
    (a) he experienced a great strain
    (b) he felt his air stand upright
    (c) his eyes strained to their utmost
    (d) his pupils dilated
  30. The person in the story
    (a) imagined that he saw an animal
    (b) could not recognize the animal
    (c) saw the animal by chance
    (d) expected to see the animal
                                                                        Passage 4
    We are tempted to assume that technological progress is real progress and that material success is the criterion of civilization. If the Eastern people become fascinated by machines and techniques and use them, as Western nation do, to build huge industrial organizations and large military establishments, they will get involved in power politics and drift into the danger of death. Scientific and technological civilization brings great rewards but also great risks and temptations .Science and technology are neither good nor bad. They are not to be tabooed but tamed and assigned their proper place. They become dangerous only if they become idols.
  31. According to the author, people think that real progress lies in
    (a) material success and technological growth
    (b) imitating western nations
    (c) having large industries and political power
    (d) taking risks and facing temperature
  32. According to the author, science and technology should be
    (a) tabooed and elimination from life
    (b) used in a controlled and careful manner
    (c) encouraged and liberally used
    (d) made compulsory in education
  33. From the passage one gathers that the Eastern people must
    (a) appreciates scientific achievements
    (b) build industrial organizations
    (c) avoid controlled by machines and techniques of industrial production
    (d) be fascinated by machines
  34. According to the author, science and technology are
    (a) totally harmless
    (b) extremely dangerous
    (c) to be treated as idols
    (d) useful, if they are not worshipped blindly
                                                                         Passage 5
    It is not luck but labour that makes men. Luck, says an American writer, is ever waiting for something to turn up; labour with keen eyes and strong will always turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would bring him news of a legacy, labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies on chance; labour on character. Luck slips downwards to self-indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending that diligence is the mother of good luck; in other words, that a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to his industry, to his attention to small things.
  35. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning of the passage?
    (a) Luck waits without exertion but labour exerts without waiting
    (b) Luck waits and complains without working while labour achieves success altogether it complains
    (c) Luck often ends in defeat but labour produces luck
    (d) Luck is self-indulgent but labour is selfless
  36. Which one of the following statements it true about the passage?
    (a) Luck is necessary for success
    (b) Success depends on hard work and attention to details
    (c) Expectation of good luck always meets with disappointment
    (d) Success is exactly proportionate to hard work only
  37. “_______ labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence” This statement means
    (a) hard work of all kinds makes people efficient and skilled
    (b) the labour lays the foundation of the building
    (c) the writer and the labourer are the true eyes of the society
    (d) there is no worker who works so hard as the labourer who begins his day at six in the morning
                                                          Passage 6

    The avowed purpose of the exact sciences is to establish complete intellectual control over experience in terms of precise rules which can be formally set out and empirically tasted. Could that ideal be fully achieved, all truth and all error could henceforth be escribed to an exact theory of the universe, while we who accept this theory would be relieved of any occasion for exercising our personal judgement. We should only have to follow the rules faithfully. Classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely that it is often through to have achieved it. But this leaves out of account the element of personal judgement involved in applying the formulae to the facts of experience.
  38. The purpose of the exact sciences id to
    (a) from opinions about our experience
    (b) formulate principals which will help us to exercise our personal judgement
    (c) assert our intellectual superiority
    (d) make formal and testable rules which can help verify experience
  39. An exact theory of the universe is
    (a) not desirable
    (b) improbable
    (c) possible
    (d) yet to be made
  40. In exact sciences
    (a) personal judgements are set aside in favour of a mechanical theory
    (b) on does not find answer to all questions and problems
    (c) one reposes faith in actual experience
    (d) one interprets the universe according to one’s wish
  41. Classical mechanics
    (a) has formulated precise rules on experience
    (b) has gained intellectual control over the world
    (c) has formulated an exact theory of the universe
    (d) just falls short of achieving intellectual control over experience
    Direction:-
    Each item in this section consists of a word in letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters
  42. AMBIGUOUS
    (a) contrasting
    (b) connivance
    (c) vague
    (d) wilful
  43. ELUCIDATE
    (a) clarify
    (b) calculate
    (c) summarise
    (d) update
  44. MONOTONOUS
    (a) dreary
    (b) dreadful
    (c) Single-minded
    (d) monologue
  45. KINDLE
    (a) make fun of
    (b) excite
    (c) very kind
    (d) kind-hearted
  46. PALAYIAL
    (a) very clean
    (b) very special
    (c) sense of state
    (d) magnificent
  47. TACTFUL
    (a) diplomatic
    (b) indifferent
    (c) intelligent
    (d) deceitful
  48. VORACIOUS
    (a) very had
    (b) insatiable
    (c) stingy
    (d) malicious
  49. STRICTURE
    (a) strictness
    (b) stinging
    (c) discipline
    (d) censure
  50. OBEISANCE
    (a) homage
    (b) pilgrimage
    (c) subjugation
    (d) obligation
    Direction:-
    Look at the underline part of speech sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the answer sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If one of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicated (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).
  51. The police accused him for
    (a) with
    (b) in
    (c) of
    (d) No improvement
  52. He wanted that I left
    (a) I may leave
    (b) me to leave
    (c) I leave
    (d) No improvement
  53. This is to certify the I know J. Mathews since 1970.
    (a) am knowing
    (b) had known
    (c) have known
    (d) No improvement
  54. They took away everything that belonged to him.
    (a) that had been belonging
    (b) that belong
    (c) that has been belonging
    (d) No improvement
  55. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had recognised.
    (a) whose voice
    (b) the voice of who
    (c) voice whose
    (d) No improvement
  56. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members.
    (a) consists of
    (b) comprises of
    (c) constituted of
    (d) No improvement
  57. The maid was laying the table for dinner.
    (a) setting up
    (b) lying
    (c) sorting out
    (d) No improvement
  58. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always on duty.
    (a) that one of us
    (b) so that one of us
    (c) such that one of us
    (d) No improvement
  59. Hardly have we got into the forest when it began to rain.
    (a) Hardly we got
    (b) We had hardly
    (c) We had got hard
    (d) No improvement
  60. Each time the felt tired he lied
    (a) lies
    (b) lays
    (c) lay
    (d) No improvement
  61. Thought it was raining, but I went out.
    (a) but yet I
    (b) I
    (c) however I
    (d) No improvement
  62. There is no chance of success unless you do not work
    (a) unless you work
    (b) until your working
    (c) until you do not work
    (d) No improvement
  63. She has grown too old to do little
    (a) some
    (b) any
    (c) a little
    (d) No improvement
  64. No one enjoys to deceive his family.
    (a) deceiving
    (b) for deceiving
    (c) deceive
    (d) No improvement
  65. Have you ever saw the flower of a pumpkin plat ?
    (a) see
    (b) seeing
    (c) seen
    (d) No improvement
  66. It is ancient, historical place and it once belonging to the Pandavas.
    (a) belonged
    (b) belonging
    (c) belong
    (d) No improvement
  67. Since we were knowing the correct route, we did not worry at all.
    (a) Knew
    (b) have known
    (c) know
    (d) No improvement
  68. Our country can progress when only people work hard.
    (a) when people only work hard
    (b) when people work hard only
    (c) only when people work hard
    (d) No improvement
  69. Wake me up when father will come.
    (a) comes
    (b) will have come
    (c) came
    (d) No improvement
  70. Do take an umbrella with lest you do not get wet.
    (a) lest you should get wet
    (b) lest you should not get wet
    (c) lest you might not get wet
    (d) No improvement
    Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items:
    Each of following items in this section consists of a sentence the part of which have been jumble. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
  71. That it would affect the investing process/P they refused/Q of these raids saying/R to divulge the venues/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) P Q R  S
    (b) S  R P Q
    (c) Q  S R  P
    (d) R  P Q S
  72. that he already has /P buying things/Q that rich man/R goes on/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) P  S   Q  R
    (b) R  S  Q   P
    (c) S   Q  R  P
    (d) R  P   Q S
  73. the police commissioner rushed/P the crowd/Q  to control /R  the police force /S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q R S P
    (b) P  Q R S
    (c) P S R Q
    (d) R S P Q
  74. my brother/P to attend his friend’s wedding/Q is going to Chennai/R  tomorrow/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) P S Q R
    (b) Q P S R
    (c) R Q P S
    (d) P R S Q
  75. quickly/P he gave orders/Q  to catch the thief/R  to his men/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) S P R Q
    (b) Q S R P
    (c) P S R Q
    (d) R S P Q
  76. to give a definition/P if I were/Q  I would begin/R  like this/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q P R S
    (b) P Q R S
    (c) S  R Q P
    (d) R S P Q
  77. deserve all honour in society /P I doing their job well/Q men of conscience wo take pride/R  whatever its nature/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) R Q S P
    (b) Q R P S
    (c) P R S Q
    (d) S P  Q R
  78. while some live /P to eat and drink/Q  many do not enough/R the amount of work one has/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q S P R
    (b) P R S Q
    (c) S P Q R
    (d) R Q S P
  79. I believed then that no matter/P one ahould always find some time for exercise/Q  and I believe even now/R  why I always have trouble/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) P R Q S
    (b) P S R Q
    (c) R P Q S
    (d) R P S Q
  80. I wonder/P whenever I decide to go to the cinema/Q  with my scooter/R  why I always have trouble/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q S P R
    (b) Q R P S
    (c) P S R Q
    (d) P R  S Q
  81. The bird-catcher by means of snares/P knew all the birds of the forest/Q by the hundred/R and was accustomed to capturing the winged creatures/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q P S R
    (b) Q S R P
    (c) P Q S R
    (d) P R Q S
  82. Man is a biological being/P his physical and material needs/Q  confined to/R  not merely/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) R S P Q
    (b) S R P Q
    (c) R P S Q
    (d) S P R Q
  83. A gang of robbers while they were fast asleep/P entered the village/Q and stole the property of the villagers/R  at night/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) Q S R P
    (b) S Q P R
    (c) S P Q R
    (d) Q P S R
  84. The opposition members the ruling of the speaker /P to protect against/Q of the Parliamen /R walked out /S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) S P Q R
    (b) Q R P S
    (c) R S P Q
    (d) S R Q P
  85. When a boy saved her/P by a speeding car/Q at the risk of his life/R a little girl was about to be run over/S
    The proper sequence should be
    (a) S P R Q
    (b) R S Q P
    (c) S Q P R
    (d) Q P S R
  86. (c) idea 
  87. (a) thought is folly, of course we
  88. (b) belatedly
  89. (a) peaceful
  90. (c) a 
  91. (a) hand
  92. (c) protect 
  93. (b) instinective
  94. (c) of
  95. (c) developed
  96. (a) thought from morning till night anything
  97. (a) we do outside that 
  98. (a) thoughts howevr, has to be
  99. (c) followed
  100. (b) if
  101. (a) developed and integrated 
  102. (a) they become and the happier you
  103. (c) grow
  104. (b) conflict
  105. (a) inability to act
    Directions for following 15 (fifteen) Items :
    Each questions in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
  106. This hardly won freedom/ (a) should not lost/(b) so soon. /(c) No error/(d)
  107. I tried to meet the person/(a) whom you said /(b) was looking for me/(c) No error/(d)
  108. We looked after the thief/(a) but he was nowhere/(b) to be found/(c) No error/(d)
  109. I hoped that the train/(a) will arrive on time/(b) but it did not/(c) No error/(d)
  110. Their all belongings/(a) were lost/(b) in the fire/(c) No error/(d)
  111. He was in the temper/(a) and refused /(b) to discuss the matter again/(c) No error/(d)
  112. The decorations in your house/(a) and similar/(b) to his house/(c) No error/(d)
  113. Despite of the increase in air fares/(a) most people still prefer/(b) to travel by plan/(c) No error/(d)
  114. He told the boys that/(a) if they worked hard/(b) they will surely pass/(c) No error/(d)
  115. I shall write/(a) to you/(b) when I shall reach Chennai/(c) No error/(d)
  116. Neither of these two documents/(a) support your claim/(b) on the property/(c) No error/(d)
  117. He is school teacher/(a) but all his sons/(b) are doctors/(c) No error/(d)
  118. His grandfather/(a) had told him to smoke/(b) was a bad habit/(c) No error/(d)
  119. My book which,/(a) I gave it to you yesterday/(b) is very interesting /(c) No error/(d)
  120. I am entirely agreeing with you/(a) but I regret/(b) I can’t help you./(c) No error/(d)

Mathematics Answers

  1. If the roots of the equation lx2 + mx + m = 0 are in the ratio p: q, then,
    Ques. 1
    is equal to
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) 2
    (d) 4
  2. If
    Ques.2
    has α and β as its roots, then the value of α β is
    (a) -15
    (b) -5
    (c) 0
    (d) 5
  3. If p/x + q/y = m and q/x + p/y = n, then what is x/y equal to?
    (a) (np + mq)/(mp + nq)
    (b) (np + mq)/(mp – nq)
    (c) (np – mq)/(mp – nq)
    (d) (np – mq)/(mp + nq)
  4. If a2 – by – cz = 0, ax – b2 + cz = 0 and ax + by – c2 = 0, then the value of x/(a + x) + y/(b + y) +z/(c + z) will be
    (a) a + b + c
    (b) 3
    (c) 1
    (d) 0
  5. If the equations x2 – px + q = 0 and x2 + qx – p = 0 have a common root, then which one of the following is correct?
    (a) p – q = 0
    (b) p + q – 2 = 0
    (c) p + q – 1 = 0
    (d) p – q – 1 = 0
  6. If x = 21/3 + 2-1/3, then the value of 2x3 – 6x – 5 is equal to
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) 2
    (d) 3
  7. The sum and difference of two expressions are 5x2 – x – 4 and x2 + 9 x – 10 respectively. The HCF of the two expressions will be
    (a) (x + 1)
    (b) (x – 1)
    (c) (3x + 7)
    (d) 2x – 3)
  8. If (s – a) + (s – b) + (s – c) = s, then the value of
    Ques. 8
    will be
    (a) 3
    (b) 1
    (c) 0
    (d) -1
  9. If the polynomial x6 + px5 + qx4– x2 – x – 3 is divisible by (x4 – 1), then the value of p2 + q2 is
    (a) 1
    (b) 9
    (c) 10
    (d) 13
  10. Let p and q be non-zero integers. Consider the polynomial A (x) = x2 + px + q
    It is given that (x – m) and (x – km) are simple factors of A (x), where m is a non-zero integer and k is a positive integer, k>2. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) (k +1)2p2 = kq
    (b) (k + 1)2q = kp2
    (c) k2q = (k + 1)p2
    (d) k2 p2 = (k + 1)2 q
  11. Let m be a non-zero integer and n be a positive integer. Let R be the remainder obtained on dividing the polynomial xn + mn by (x – m). Then
    (a) R is a non-zero event integer
    (b) R is odd, if m is odd
    (c) R = s2 for some integers, if n is even
    (d) R = t2 for some integer t, if 3 divides n
  12. If 4x2y = 128 and 33x32y – 9xy = 0, then the value of x + y can be equal to
    (a) 7
    (b) 5
    (c) 3
    (d) 1
  13. If the linear factors of ax2 – (a2 + 1) x + a are p and q, then p + q is equal to
    (a) (x – 1) (a + 1)
    (b) (x + 1) (a + 1)
    (c) (x – 1) (a – 1)
    (d) x + 1) (a – 1)
  14. If
    Ques. 14
    then bx2 – ax + b is equal to (given that b does not equal to 0)
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) ab
    (d) 2ab
  15. If a3 = 117 + b3 and a = 3 + b, then the value of a + b is (given that a>0 and bb>0)
    (a) 7
    (b) 9
    (c) 11
    (d) 13
  16. If the sum of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then which one of the following relations is correct?
    (a) ab2 + bc2 = 2a2c
    (b) ac2 + bc2 = ab2a
    (c) ab2 + bc2 = a2c
    (d) a2 + b2 + c2 = 1
  17. Consider the following statements in respect of the expression
    Sn = n (n + a)/2
    where n is an integer:
    There are exactly two values of n for which Sn = 861
    2. Sn = S-(n + 1) and hence for nay integer m, we have two values of n for which Sn = m
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  18. Consider the following statements in respect of two different non zero integers p and q are:
    For (p + q) to be less than (p – q), q must be negative.
    2. For (p + q) to greater than (p – q), both p and q must be positive
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  19. If a/b = b/c = c/d, then which of the following is/are correct?
    ques.19
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  20. 710 – 510 is divisible by
    (a) 5
    (b) 7
    (c) 10
    (d) 11
  21. Let a two- digit number be k times the sum of its digits. If the number formed by interchanging the digits is m times the sum of the digits, then the value of m is
    (a) 9 – k
    (b) 10 – k
    (c) 11- k
    (d) k -1
  22. A man walking at 5 km/hour noticed that a 225 m long train coming in the opposition direction crossed him in 9 seconds. The speed of the train is
    (a) 75 km/hour
    (b) 80 km/hour
    (c) 85 km/hour
    (d) 90 km/hour
  23. (sin 35o/cos 55o)2 – (cos 55o/sin 35o)2 + 2 sin 30o is equal to
    (a) -1
    (b) 0
    (c) 1
    (d) 2
  24. A cyclist moves non-stop from A to B, a distance of 14 km, at a certain average speed. If his average speed reduces by 1 km per hour, he takes 20 minutes more to cover the same distance. The original average speed of the cyclist is
    (a) 5 km/hour
    (b) 6 km/hour
    (c) 7 km/hour
    (d) None of the above
  25. If a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest per year doubles in 5 years and at a different rate of simple interest per year becomes three times in 12 years, then the different in the two rates of simple interest per year is
    (a) 2%
    (b) 3%
    (c) 10/3%
    (d) 13/3%
  26. The annual incomes of two persons are in the ratio 9: 7 and their expenses are in the ratio 4: 3. If each of them saves Rs. 2, 000 per year, what is the difference in their annual incomes?
    (a) Rs. 4, 000
    (b) Rs. 4, 500
    (c) Rs. 5, 000
    (d) Rs. 5, 500
  27. Let S be a set of first fourteen natural numbers. The possible number of pairs (a, b), where a, b belong Sand a does not equal to b such that ab leaves remainder 1 when divided by 15, is
    (a) 3
    (b) 5
    (c) 6
    (d) None of the above
  28. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 8 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock is
    (a) 14 seconds
    (b) 16 seconds
    (c) 18 seconds
    (d) None of the above
  29. In a circle of radius 2 units, a diameter AB intersects a chord of length 2 units perpendicularly at P. If AP>BP, then AP is equal to
    (a) (2 + sqrt.5) units
    (b) (2 + sqrt.3) units
    (c) (2 + sqrt.2) units
    (d) 3 units
  30. Under what condition on p and q, one of the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0 is the square of the other?
    (a) 1 + q + q2 = 3pq
    (b) 1 + p + p2 = 3 pq
    (c) p3 + q + q2 = 3 pq
    (d) q3 + p + q2 = 3 qp
  31. What is the maximum value of m, if the number N = 90 x 42 x 324 x 55 is divisible by 3m?
    (a) 8
    (b) 7
    (c) 6
    (d) 5
  32. A bike consumes 20 mL of petrol per kilometre, if it driven at a speed in the range of 25-50 km/hour and consumes 40 mL of petrol per kilometre at any other speed. How much petrol is consumed by the bile in travelling a distance of 50 km, if the bike for the first 10 km, at a speed of 60 km/hour for the nest 30 km and at a speed of 30 km/hour for the last 10 km?
    (a) 1 L
    (b) 1.2 L
    (c) 1.4 L
    (d) 1.6 L
  33. Consider the following statements:
    Every natural number is a real number.
    2. Every real number is a rational number.
    3. Every integer is a real number.
    4. Every rational number is a real number.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1, 2 and3
    (b) 1, 3 and 4
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 3 and 4 only
  34. For what value of k is (x + 1) a factor of x3 + kx2 – x + 2?
    (a) 4
    (b) 3
    (c) 1
    (d) -2
  35. Consider the following statements:
    There exists a positive real number m such that cosx = 2m + 1
    2. mn > and equal (m +n) for all m, n belonging to set of natural numbers.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  36. Which of the point P(5, -1), Q(3, -2) and R(1, 1) lie in the solution of the system of in equations (x + y) < and + 4 and (x – y) > and =2 ?
    (a) Q and R only
    (b) P and R only
    (c) P and Q only
    (d) P, Q and R
  37. A passenger train takes 1 hour less for a journey of 120 km, if its speed is increase by 10 km/hour from its usual speed. What is its usual speed?
    (A) 50 km/hour
    (b) 40 km/hour
    (c) 35 km/hour
    (d) 30 km/hour
  38. The value of k, for which the system of equations 3x – kx – 20 = 0 and 6x – 10y + 40 = 0 has no solution, is
    (a) 10
    (b) 6
    (c) 5
    (d) 3
  39. Consider the following in respect of natural numbers a, b and c :
    1. LCM (ab, ac) = a LCM (b, c)
    2. HCF (ab, ac) = a HCF (b, c)
    3. HCF (a, b) < LCM (a, b)
    4. HCF (a, b) divisible LCM (a, b)
    Which of the above are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  40. There are three brothers. The sums of ages of two of them at a time are 4 years, 6 years and 8 years. The age difference between the eldest and the youngest is
    (a) 3 years
    (b) 4 years
    (c) 5 years
    (d)( 6 years
  41. A person goes to a market between 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. When he comes back, he fined that the hour hand and minute hand of the clock have interchange their positions. For how time (approximately) was he out of his house?
    (a) 55.38 minutes
    (b) 55.48 minutes
    (c) 55.57 minutes
    (d) 55.67 minutes
  42. In a gathering of 100 people, 70 of them can speak Hindi, 60 can speak English and 30 can speak and French. Further, 30 of them can speak both Hindi and English, 20 can speak both Hindi and French. If x is the number of people who can speak both English and French, then which one of the following is correct? (Assume that everyone can speak at least one of the three languages.)
    (a) 9 <x < and equal 30
    (b) 0 < and equal x < 8
    (c) x = 9
    (d) x = 8
  43. A cloth merchant buys cloth from a weaver and teaches him by using a scale which is 10 cm longer than a normal metre scale. He claims to sell cloth at the cost price to his customers, but while selling uses a scale which is 10 cm shorter than a normal metre scale. What is his gain?
    (a) 20%
    (b) 21%
    (c) 22 (2/9)%
    (d) 23 (1/3)%
  44. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is also an outlet C. If A, B and C are opened together, the tank is full in 50 minutes. How much time will be taken by C to empty the full tank?
    (a) 100 minutes
    (b) 110 minutes
    (c) 120 minutes
    (d) 125 minutes
  45. In a rare of 100 m, A beats B by 100 or 10 seconds. If they starts a race of 1000 m simultaneously from the same point and if B gets injured after running 50 m less than half the rave length and due to which his speed gets halves, then by how much time will A beat B?
    (a) 65 seconds
    (b) 60 seconds
    (c) 50 seconds
    (d) 45 seconds
  46. The salary of a person is increased by 10% of his original salary. But he received the same amount even after increment. What is the percentage of his salary he did not receive?
    (a) 11%
    (b) 10%
    (c) (100/11)%
    (d) 90/11)%
  47. A truck moves along a circular path and describe 100 m when it has traced out 36o at the centre. The radius of the circle is equal to
    (a) 100/pai m
    (b) 250/pai m
    (c) 500/pai m
    (d) 600/ pai m
  48. Two poles are placed at P and Q on either side of a road such that the line joining P and Q is perpendicular to the length of road. A person moves a metre away from P parallel to the road and places another pole at R. Then the person moves further x metre in the same direction and turns and moves a distance y metre away from the road perpendicularly, where he finds himself, Q and R on the same line. The distance between P and Q (i.e. the width of the road) in metre is
    (a) x
    (b) x/2
    (c) y
    (d) 2 y
  49. (b) 1 and 3 only 
  50. Suppose ABC is a triangle with AB of unit length. D and E are the points lying on AB and AC respectively such that BC and DE are parallel. If the area of triangle ABC twice the area of triangle ADE, then the length of AD is
    (a) 1/2 unit
    (b) 1/3 unit
    (c) 1/sqrt.2 unit
    (d) 1/sqrt.3 unit
  51. A rhombus is formed by joining midpoints of the rectangle in the suitable order. If the area of the rhombus is 2 square units, then the area of the rectangle is
    (a) 2 sqrt.2 square units
    (b) 4 square units
    (c) 4 sqrt.2 square units
    (d) 8 square units
  52. If each interior angle of a rectangular polygon is 140o, then the number of vertices of the polygon is equal to
    (a) 10
    (b) 9
    (c) 8
    (d) 7
  53. (d) Statements I is false but statements II is true
  54. The number of rounds that a wheel of diameter 7/11 metre will make in traversing 4 km will be
    (a) 500
    (b) 1000
    (c) 1700
    (d) 2000
  55. The base of an isosceles triangle is 300 units and each of its equal sides is 170 units. Then the area of the triangle is
    (a) 9600 square units
    (b) 10000 square units
    (c) 12000 square units
    (d) None of the above
  56. Four equal discs are placed such that each one touches two others. If the area of empty space enclosed by them is 150/847 square centimetre, then the radius of each disc is equal to
    (a) 7/6 cm
    (b) 5/6 cm
    (c) 1/2 cm
    (d) 5/11 cm
  57. ABC and DEF are similar triangles. If the ratio of side AB to side DE is (sqrt.2 + 1): sqrt.3, then the ratio of area of triangle ABC to that of triangle DEF is
    (a) (3 – 2sqrt.2): 3
    (b) (9 – 6sqrt.2): 2
    (c) 1: (9 – 6 sqrt.2)
    (d) 3 + 2 sqrt.2): 2
  58. A tangent is drawn from an external point O to a circle of radius 3 units at P such that OP = 4 units. If C is the centre of the circle , then the sine of the angle COP is
    (a) 4/5
    (b) 1/3
    (c) 3/5
    (d) ½
  59. A square is inscribed in a right-angled triangle with legs p and q, and has a common right angle the diagonal of the square is given by
    (a) pq/(p + 2q)
    (b) pq/(2p + q)
    (c) sqrt.2pq/(p + q)
    (d) 2 pq/(p + q)
  60. If x/a – y tanq/b = 1 and x tanq/a + y/b = 1, then the value of x2/a2 + y2/b2 is
    (a) 2sec2q
    (b) sec2q
    (c) cos2q
    (d) 2 cos2q
  61. Consider the following :
    Ques.62
    Which of the above is/are identify/identifies?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  62. If p = cotq + tanq and q = secq – cosq, then (p2q)2/3 – (q2p)2/3 is equal to
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) 2
    (d) 3
  63. Two observers are stationed cue to north a tower (of height x metre) at a distance y metre from each other. The angles of elevation of the tower observed by them are 30o and 45o Then x/y is equal to
    (a) (sqrt.2 – 1)/2
    (b) (sqrt.3 – 1)/2
    (c) (sqrt.3 + 1)/2
    (d) 1
  64. If
    Ques.66.
    1. There are two values of q satisfying the above equation.
    2. q = 60o is satisfied by the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  65. In a triangle ABC if A – B = pai/2, then C + 2 B is equal to
    (a) 2 pai/3
    (b) 3 pai/4
    (c) pai
    (d) pai/2
  66. There are five lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel. The maximum number of points in which they can intersect is
    (a) 4
    (b) 6
    (c) 10
    (d) None of these
  67. Consider a circle with centre at O and radius 7 cm, Let QR be a chord of length 2 cm and let P be the midpoint of QR. Let CD be another chord of this circle passing through P such that ÐCPQ is acute. If M is the midpoint of CD and MP = sqrt.24 cm, then which of the following statements are correct?
    1. Ð QPD = 150o
    2. If CP = m cm and PD = n cm, then m and n are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 10x + 1 = 0
    3. The ratio of the area of triangle OPR to the area of triangle OMP is 1: 2sqrt.2.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  68. Let ABC be a triangle in which AB = AC. Let L be the locus that BX = CX. Which of the following statements are correct?
    L is a straight line passing through A and in-cetre of triangle ABC is on L.
    2. L is a straight line passing through A and orthocentre of triangle ABC is a point on L.
    3. L is a straight line passing through A and centroid of triangle ABC is a point on L.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  69. Consider a circle with centre at C, Let OP, OQ denote respectively the tangents to the circle drawn from a point O outside the circle. Let R be a point on OP and S be a point on OQ such that OR x SQ = OS x RP. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    If X is the circle with centre at O and radius OR, and Y is the circle with centre at O and radius OS, then X = Y.
    2. ÐPOC + ÐQCO = 90o
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  70. If m and n are distinct natural number, then which of the following is/are integer/integers?
    m/n + n/m
    2. Mn(m/n + n/m)(m2 + n2)-1
    3. Mn/(m2 + n2)
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only
  71. Outside a meeting room, Madhukar was told by a person that each meeting takes place after 13/4 hours. The last meeting has been over just 45 minutes ago and the next meeting will take place at 2 p. m. At what time did Madhukar receive this information?
    (a) 10: 20 a.m.
    (b) 11: 30 a.m.
    (c) 11:40 a.m.
    (d) 11: 50 a.m.
  72. The expenditure of a household for a certain month is Rs. 20, 000 out of which Rs. 8, 000 is spent on education, Rs. 5, 900 on food. Rs. 2, 800 on shopping and the rest on personal care. What percentage of expenditure is spent on personal care?
    (a) 12%
    (b) 16.5%
    (c) 18%
    (d) 21.8%
  73. If
    Ques.76
    Where a, y and z natural numbers, then what is z equal to ?
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4
  74. A circular path is made from two concerntric circular rings in such a way that the smaller ring when allowed to roll over the circumference of the bigger ring, it takes three full revolutions. If the area of the pathway is equal to n times the area of the smaller ring, then n is equal to
    (a) 4
    (b) 6
    (c) 8
    (d) 10
  75. Consider the following statements:
    If n> and = 3 , m > and equal 3 are distinct positive integers, then the sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is different from the sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon of n sides.
    2. Let m, n be integers such that m>n> and =. Then the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is greater than the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of n sides, and their sum is (m + n) pai/2.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  76. Consider the following statements:
    There exists a regular polygon whose exterior angles is 70o
    2. Let n > and = 5. Then the exterior angle of nay regular polygon of n sides is acute.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  77. In a triangle PQR, point X is on PQ and point Y is on PR such that XP = 1.5 units, XO = 6 units, PY = 2 units and YR = 8 units. Which of the following are correct?
    1. QR = 5 XY
    2. QR is parallel to XY.
    3. Triangle PYX is similar to triangle PRQ.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  78. If a transversal intersects four paralle straight lines, then the number of distinct values of the angles formed will be
    (a) 2
    (b) 4
    (c) 8
    (d) 16
  79. A person travels 7 km eastwards and then turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right and travels 13 km. What is the shortest distance of the present position of the person from his starting point?
    (a) 6 km
    (b) 3 sqrt.5 km
    (c) 7 km
    (d) 4 sqrt.5 km
  80. ABC is a triangle in which D is the midpoint of BC and E is the midpoint of AD. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    The area of triangle ABC is equal to four times the area of triangle BED.
    2. The area of triangle ADC is twice the area of triangle BED.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  81. Ques.84
    A circle of 3 m radius is divided into three areas by semicircles of redii 1 m and 2 m as shown in the figure above. The ratio of the three areas A, B and C will be
    (a) 2: 3: 2
    (b) 1: 1: 1
    (c) 4: 3: 4
    (d) 1: 2: 1
  82. If sqrt.(x/y) = 10/3 – sqrt.(y/X) and x – y = 8, then the value of xy is equal to
    (a) 36
    (b) 24
    (c) 16
    (d) 9
  83. Ques.86
    ABC is a triangle angled at C as shown in the figure above. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) AQ2 + AB2 = BP2 + PQ2
    (b) AQ2 + PQ2 = AB2 + BP2
    (c) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2
    (d) AQ2 + AP2 = BK2 + KQ2
  84. Ques.87
    In the figure given above AD = CD = BC. What is the value of ÐCDB?
    (a) 32o
    (b) 64o
    (c) 78o
    (d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
  85. ABC is an equilateral triangle and X, Y and X are the points on BC, CA and AB respectively such that BX = CY = AZ. Which of the following is/are correct?
    XYZ is an equilateral triangle.
    2. Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d0 Neither 1 nor 2
  86. Ques.89
    In the figure given above, p and q are parallel lines. What are the values of the angles x, y and z?
    (a) x = 80o, y = 40o,   z = 100o
    (b) x = 80o,    y = 50o,  z = 105O
    (c) x = 70o,    y = 40o,  z = 110o
    (d) x  = 60o,  y = 20o,   z = 120o
  87. Ques.90
    The linear in equations, for which the shaded area in the figure given above is the solution set, are
    (a) 2 x + 6y < and = 21, 5 x – 2 y < and = 10
    (b) 2 x + 6 y < and = 21,  5 x – 2 y > and = 10
    (c) 2 x + 6 y > and = 21,  5 x – 2 y < and = 10
    (d) 2 x + 6 y > and = 21, 5 x – 2 y > and = 10
  88. The election result in which six parties contested was depicted by a pie chart. Party A had an angle 135o on his pie chart. If it secured 21960 votes, how many valid votes in total were cast?
    (a) 51240
    (b) 58560
    (c) 78320
    (d) 87840
  89. The mean and median of 5 observations 9 and 8 respectively. If 1 is subtracted from each observation, then the new mean and the new median will respectively be
    (a) 8 and 7
    (b) 9 and 7
    (c) 8 and 9
    (d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data.
  90. The age distribution of 40 children is as follows :
    Ques.91
    Consider the following statements in respect of the above frequency distribution:
    The median of the age distribution is 7 years.
    2. 70% of the children are in the age group 6-9 years.
    3. The modal age of the children is 8 years.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  91. Suppose xi = li for 0 < and = I < and = 10, where l >1. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) AM < Median
    (b) GM < Median
    (c) GM = Median
    (d) AM = Median
  92. Suppose xi = 1/I for I = 1, 2, 3, ………., 11. Which one of the following is not correct?
    (a) AM > 1/6
    (b) GM > 1/6
    (c) HM > 1/6
    (d) Median =  HM
  93. The value of
    Ques.96
    is
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) 2
    (d) 3
  94. If tanq + cotq = 4/sqrt.3, where 0 < q < pai/2, then sinq + cosq is equal to
    (a) 1
    (b) (sqrt.3 – 1)/2
    (c) (sqrt.3 + 1)/2
    (d) sqrt. 2
  95. The value of the expression
    {(243 + 647)2 + (243 – 647)2}/(243 x 243 + 647 x 647) is equal to
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) 2
    (d) 3
  96. If a and b are negative real numbers and c is a positive real number, then which of the following is/are correct?
    (a – b) < (a – c)
    2. If a < b, then a/c < b/c
    3. 1/b < 1/c
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 3
  97. Ques.100
    AD is the diameter of a circle with area 707 m2 and AB = BC = CD as shown in the figure above. All curves inside the circle are semicircles with their diameters on AD. What is the cost of levelling the shaded region at the rate of Rs. 63 per square metre?
    (a) Rs. 29, 700
    (b) Rs. 22, 400
    (c) Rs. 14, 847
    (d) None of the above

 

 

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