Central Board of Secondary Education successfully conducted the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET). This exam held in two shift, Morning & Evening Shift. Thousands of candidates attend this exam. Candidates will be eager to know their performance in the examination. Official CTET Answer key will be released soon on official website ctet.nic.in

Before official CTET Answer Key, Solved paper team providing you a tentative and reliable CTET Answer Key along with Question paper. Eager candidate can check their performance in the examination. CTET Question paper consists five parts.

  1. Child Development & Pedagogy
  2. Mathematics & Science
  3. EVS/Social Studies Science
  4. English & Hindi (Language I)
  5. English & Hindi (Language-II)

CTET Answer Key September 2014:

Exam Date: 20 September 2014
Exam Board: Central Board of Secondary Education
Exam Centers: All over the India
Exam Name: Common Teacher Eligibility Test
Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice type
Official Answer key: Released soon
Unofficial Answer Key: Available
Website: ctet.nic.in

 

PART-I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

  1. Assessments for learning  
    (a) is done for the purpose of segregation and ranking
    (b) Emphasizes the overall importance of grades
    (c) is an  exlusive  and  a  per  se assessment activity
    (d) fosters motivation
  1. The knowledge of Individual Differences helps teachers in
    (a) accepting and attributing the failure of students to their individual differences
    (b) making their presentation style uniform to benefit all students equally
    (c) assessing the individual needs of all students and teaching them accordingly
    (d) understanding the futility of working hard with backward students as they can never be at par with the class
  2. Which one of the following may be the criteria of gender parity in a society
    (a) Equal number of distinctions achieved by boys and girls in Class 12
    (b) Comparison of number of boys and girls who survive up to Class 12
    (c) Whether the girl students are allowed to participate in competitions organised outside the school
    (d) Comparison of number of male and female teachers in schoolWhich of the following is a process in the social observational learning theory of Bandura?
  3. Which of the following is a process in the social observational learning theory of Bandura?
    (a) Retention
    (b) Repetition
    (c) Recapitulation
    (d) Reflection
  4. Reducing the time allowtted to complete an assignment to make it coincide with time of attention and increasing this time in a phased manner will be best suited to deal with which of the following disorders?Dysphasia
    (a) Dysphasia
    (b) Sensory integration disorder
    (c) Attention deficit  hyperactivity disorder
    (d) Disruptive behaviour disorder
  5. Students in a class are asked to assemble various artefacts of their work in a notebook, to demonstrate what they can do for their What kind of activity is this?
    (a) Anecdotal records
    (b) Problem-solving assessment
    (c) Portfolio assessment
    (d) Essay type assessment
  6. Learners cannot learn unless
    (a) they know that the material being taught will be tested in the near future
    (b) they are prepared to learn
    (c) they are asked about their learning in schools by their parents at home on a daily basis
    (d) they are  taught  according  to  the needs of social aims of education
  7. By placing students in the least restricted school environment, the school
    (a) normalises the lives of children from deprived groups who were increasing the linkage of school with the  parents  and  communities  of these children
    (b) gets disadvantaged children’s involvement in activities such as science fairs and quizzes
    (c) sensitises other children not to bully or to put the disadvantaged children down
    (d) equalises the educational opportunities for girls and disadvantaged groups
  8. Psychosocial theory emphasises on which of the following?
    (a) Phallic and Latency stages
    (b) Industry versus Inferiority stage
    (c) Operant Conditioning
    (d) Stimuli and Response
  9. Theory of social learning emphasises on which of the following factors
    (a) Nurture
    (b) Adaptation
    (c) Emendation
    (d) Nature
  10. Developmental perspective of teaching demands teachers to
    (a) adapt instructional strategies based on the knowledge of developmental factors
    (b) treat children in different developmental stages in an equitable manner
    (c) provide learning that results in the development of only the cognitive domain
    (d) be strict disciplinarians as children experiment quite frequently
  11. School Based Assessments
    (a) offer less control to the students over what will be assessed
    (b) improve learning by providing a constructive feedback
    (c) encourage teaching to the test as they involve frequent testing
    (d) focus on exam techniques rather than outcomes
  12. Retrieving hidden objects is an evidence that infants have begun to master which of the following cognitive functions?
    (a) Object-permanence
    (b) Problem-solving
    (c) Experimentation
    (d) Intentional behaviour
  13. Rajesh is struggling to solve a problem of Mathematics The inner force compelling him to search for a way to solve it completely, is known as
    (a) Personality trait
    (b) Emotion
    (c) Perception
    (d) Motive
  14. Which of the following facts has been least discussed in the psychology of emotion?
    (a) Emotions may not only occur within individual students, but also within the entire class
    (b) Emotions are a complex pattern of arousal and cognitive interpretation
    (c) Emotional process involves physiological as well as psychological reactions
    (d) Emotion is a subjective feeling and varies from person to person
  15. Which of the following is properly sequenced in the context of motivation cycle?
    (a) Drive, Need, Arousal, Goal-directed behaviour, Achievement, Reduction of arousal
    (b) Need, Goal-directed behaviour, Drive, Arousal,  Achievement,  Reduction of arousal
    (c) Need, Drive, Arousal, Goal-directed behaviour, Achievement, Reduction of arousal
    (d) Arousal, Drive, Need, Achievement, Goal-directed behaviour, Reduction of arousal
  16. The factor ‘g’ in the Spearman definition of intelligence stands for
    (a) generative intelligence
    (b) general intelligence
    (c) global intelligence
    (d) genetic intelligence
  17. Progressive education is associated with which of the following statements?
    (a) Knowledge is  generated  through direct experience and collaboration
    (b) Learning proceeds in a straight way with factual gathering and skill mastery
    (c) Examination is norm-referenced and external
    (d) Teachers are  the  originators  of information and authority
  18. As a teacher you firmly believe in ‘saying no to ragging and bullying’ and put up posters and form committees in The young adolescents who join you with strong beliefs, are at which of the following stages?
    (a) The pre-conventional level
    (b) The post-conventional level
    (c) Social order maintaining level
    (d) The conventional level
  19. In context of ‘theory of multiple intelligences’, which one of the following intelligences is required for an airforce pilot?
    (a) Linguistic
    (b) Kinesthetic
    (c) Intrapersonal
    (d)  Interpersonal
  20. The fact that children require culturally relevant knowledge and skills is attributed to
    (a) B. F. Skinner
    (b) Urie Bronfenbrenner
    (c) Lev Vygotsky
    (d) Charles Darwin
  21. Emotional intelligence may be associated with which domain of theory of Multiple Intelligence?
    (a) Naturalist intelligence
    (b) Visual-spatial intelligence
    (c) Existential intelligence
    (d) Intrapersonal and  interpersonal intelligences
  22. For gifted students,
    (a) there is no need to monitor progress
    (b) the teacher  should  adapt  as  the students changes
    (c) the teacher should initiate and lead problem-solving
    (d) it is safe to consider aptitude as a skill
  23. Which of the following approaches suggests interaction of the child with the people around him and with social institutions to deal with disruptive behaviour disorder?
    (a) Ecological
    (b) Biological
    (c) Behavioural
    (d) Psychodynamic
  24. The best way to increase the chances of learning disabled students to lead a full and productive life, is by
    (a) maintaining a high expectation from such students
    (b) teaching a variety of skills and strategies that can be applied across a range of contexts
    (c) encouraging these children to define their own goals
    (d) focussing on  weaknesses  of  such students
  25. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to monitor the progress of children with learning disabilities?
    (a) Anecdotal records
    (b) Behaviour-rating scale
    (c) Structured behavioural observation
    (d) Case-study
  26. Renzulli is known for his ________ definition of giftedness
    (a) four-level
    (b) three-circle
    (c) three-sided
    (d) four-tiered
  27. A Class VII  students  makes  errors  in Mathematics. As a teacher you would
    (a) allow the student to use calculator
    (b) ask the student to use alternative method or redo it to find out errors on his/her own
    (c) show the student where the errors were made and ask the student to redo it
    (d) provide the student the correct answer
  28. To  explain,  predict,  and/or  control phenomena are the goals of
    (a) Inductive reasoning
    (b) Deductive reasoning
    (c) The scientific method
    (d) Traditional reasoning
  29. According  to  Socio-cultural  theory  of Vygotsky
    (a) the child thinks in different domains and does not take a complete perspective
    (b) children think in abstract terms if presented abstract material at a lower age
    (c) self-directed speech is the lowest stage of the scaffold
    (d) culture and language play a crucial role in development

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART-II MATHEMATICS

31. “It  is  more  useful  to  know  how  to mathematise  than  to  know  a  lot  of Mathematics.” This statement is given  by
(a) George Polya
(b) Van Hiele
(c) Vygotsky
(d) David Wheeler

32. Four times the area of the curved surface of a cylinder is equal to 6 times the sum of the areas of its bases. If its height is 12 cm, then its volume, in cm3, is
(a) 384π
(b) 546π
(c) 768π
(d) 48π

33. If one angle of a triangle is 130°, then the angle between the bisectors of other two angles is
(a) 115°
(b) 130°
(c) 155°
(d) 65°

34. What should be subtracted from -5/7  to get -1?
(a) 4/7
(b) 2/7
(c) -4/7
(d) -2/7

35. Numbers of -11/20, 7/-15, 17/-30 and -3/10 are written in descending order as
(a) -3/10>7/-15>-11/20>17/-30
(b) -3/10>-11/20>7/-15>17/-30
(c) -11/20>17/-30>-3/10>7/-15
(d) 17/-30>-11/20>-3/10>7/-15

36. As per NCF 2005, one main goal of Mathematics education in schools is to
(a) enhance problem-solving skills
(b) nurture analytical ability
(c) mathematise the child’s thought process
(d) develop numeracy skills

37. With the help of ‘Geogebra’ software, students can learn all concepts of geometry through
(a) inquiry-based approach
(b) project-based approach
(c) lecture-based approach
(d) exploratory approach

38. As per the vision statement of NCF 2005, School Mathematics does not take place in a situation, where children
(a) see Mathematics as a part of their daily life experience
(b) pose and solve meaningful problems
(c) memorise formulae and algorithms
(d) learns to enjoy Mathematics

39. A teacher asked the students to “find the number of possible pentominoes using 5 squares and then further explore the number of possible hexaminoes and so on.”
These types of activities help the child to
(a) identify relation between number pattern and shapes
(b) improve spatial ability
(c) improve analytical ability
(d) improve the observation skills

40.The twin premises to fix the place of Mathematics teaching in our school curriculum are
(a) “how to improve the reasoning ability of every student” and “how to enhance his spatial ability.”
(b) “how to raise the performance of every student in Mathematics” and “how to prepare meritorious
students for international olympiads.”
(c) “how to make the Mathematics class more activity-oriented” and “how to enhance the procedural skills and understanding of algorithms in every student.”
(d) “how to engage the mind of every student” and “how to strengthen the student’s resources.”

41. One of the major reasons for student’s failure in Mathematics at school level is that our assessment process
(a) is gender biased and asks problems relevant to boys’ interests
(b) is more subjective in nature and less or no objective type of questions are included
(c) gives more weightage to fomative assessment than summative assessment
(d) emphasizes on testing of procedural knowledge than mathematisation of abilities

42. The sum of all interior angles of a polygon is 1440°. The number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 8

43. The area of a square is 16/π  of the area of a circle. The ratio of the side of the square to the diameter of the circle is
(a) 2:1
(b) π : 1
(c) √2 π : 1
(d) 3 : 1

44. If x is an integer, then (x + 1)^4 – (x – 1)^4 is always divisible by
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 6

45. In standard form, the number 829030000 is expressed as k × 10^n. The value of k + n is
(a) 16.2903
(b)15.2903
(c) 91.903
(d) 90.903

46. If a, b and c are different integers such that a < b < c < 0, then which of the following statements is true?
(a) ab < c
(b) a + b > c
(c) ac > ab
(d) a + c < b

47. LCM of two prime numbers x and y, (x> y), is 161. The value of 3y – x is
(a) – 2
(b) – 5
(c) 62
(d) 2

48. If a =√((2013)² + 2013 + 2014), then the value of a is
(a) 1007
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 1002

49. The value of ³√500  ³√16 is
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 18
(d) 16

50. What is the probability that a randomly selected factor from positive factors of 72 is less than 11?
(a) 7/11
(b) 7/12
(c) 7/10
(d) 5/12

51. If a, b and c are respectively the number of faces, edges and vertices of a pentagonal pyramid, then the value of ((a+b+c)/2)² – is
(a) 2
(b) 1.75
(c) – 1
(d) – 1.5

52. The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% per year. It was purchased 3 years ago. If its present value is Rs.1,45,800, for how much was it purchased?
(a) Rs.1,80,000
(b) Rs.2,00,000
(c) Rs.2,10,000
(d) Rs.1,75,800

53. Cost price of 20 articles is equal to selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 15

54. The base of an isosceles ∆ABC is 48 cm and its area is 168 cm2. The length of one of its equal sides is
(a)15 cm
(b) 17 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 8 cm

55. The hundreds digit of a three-digit number is 7 more than the units digit. The digits of the number are reversed, and the resulting number is subtracted from the original three-digit number. The units digit of the final number so obtained is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0

56. Rani, who is y years old at present, is x years older than Hamid. Fifteen years ago, Hamid’s age was 1/4 of the age of Rani. Which of following is true?
(a) 2y – x = 15
(b) y/x-15 = 1/4
(c) 3x – 4y = 45
(d) 3y – 4x = 45

57. A teacher asked the students to collect leaves and to identify symmetry patterns. This task reflects the teacher’s efforts to
(a) introduce an intradisciplinary approach
(b) enhance creativity amongst students
(c) improve mathematical communication
(d) relate real life experience with mathematical concepts

58. Anil is able to answer all questions orally, but commits mistakes while writing the solutions of problems. The best remedial strategy to remove errors in his writing is
(a) calling him out to solve a problem on the blackboard
(b) providing him with a worksheet with partially solved problems to complete the missing gaps
(c) giving him practice test after school hours, continuously for one month
(d) giving him an assignment of 10 problems every day

59. As per NCF 2005, Mathematics curriculum is ambitious, coherent and teaches important Mathematics. Here ‘ambitious’ refers to
(a) seek higher aims of teaching Mathematics in school
(b) teach more than one way of solving problems of Mathematics
(c) teach variety of Mathematics like arithmetic, algebra, geometry and data handling
(d) seek narrow aims of teaching Mathematics in school

60. A has 20% more money than B, and C has 20% less money than B. What percent more money does A have than C?
(a) 50
(b) 17
(c) 43
(d) 30

61. A student puts a drop of dilute solution of sodium hydroxide first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus paper. He would observe that
(a) there is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue
(b) there is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red
(c) the blue litmus paper turns colourless and there is no change in the red litmus paper
(d) the blue litmus paper turns red and the red litmus paper turns blue

62. You have phenolphthalein solution in three test tubes A, B and C. On putting 2 – 3 drops of dilute hydrochloric acid in A, a solution of sodium hydroxide in B and distilled water in C, if you immediately observe the colour of the solution in each test tube, you will find that the solution in test tube
(a) A is pink, in B pale green and in C colourless
(b) A is colourless, in B colourless and in C pink
(c) A is pale green, in B pink and in C pink
(d) A is colourless, in B pink and in C colourless

63. Good science education should be ‘true to the child’, implies that science we teach should
(a) convey significant aspects of science content
(b) be understandable to the child
(c) engage the child in learning process skills
(d) relate to the environment of the child

64. Vandana is interested to focus more on acquisition of process skills of science by students of Class VIII. Which of the following combination of methods should she prefer to teach the topic on ‘Micro-organisms’?
(a) Project-cum-laboratory method
(b) Home assignment-cum-science quiz method
(c) Home assignment-cum-questioning method
(d) Assignment-cum-questioning method

65. While teaching correct method of measuring volume of a solid using a measuring cylinder, Kavita mentions the following steps (not in correct sequence) to be followed :
(A) Note the reading of level of water in the cylinder.
(B) Suspend the solid with a thread inside water in the cylinder.
(C) Record the least count of the measuring cylinder.
(D) Put sufficient water in the cylinder and note the reading.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps for the said purpose?
(a) C, B, D, A
(b) C, D, B, A
(c) D, B, C, A
(d) A, B, C, D

66. The reason of sea breeze is
(a) During the day, the sea water gets heated faster than the land
(b) At night, the land cools down more slowly than the sea water
(c) At night, the sea water cools down more slowly than the land
(d) During the day, the land gets heated faster than the sea water

67. National Curriculum Framework, 2005 recommends that science education at upper primary stage should focus on
(a) helping students to acquire international standards in learning of science
(b) minimising social disparities in the students
(c) promoting human values and knowledge base for peaceful society
(d) helping students to connect classroom learning to life outside the school

68. The topic ‘Separation of Substances’ in Class VI can be taught most effectively by
(a) using hands on activities to be performed by students
(b) using good home assignments
(c) organizing more group discussions on different sub-topics
(d) in depth explanation of related concepts

69. Which one of the following is the key expectation from teaching and learning of science at upper primary stage?
(a) To create literary literacy
(b) To appreciate the inter-relationship between science and art
(c) To acquire academic excellence for competition examinations
(d) To acquire questioning and inquiring skills

70. The normal temperature of human body on the Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scales is respectively
(a) 37°F and 98.6°C
(b) 37°C and 96.8°C
(c) 37°F and 96.8°C
(d) 37°C and 98.6°F

71. Select the group of poor conductors of heat from the following
(a) Wool, wood, iron
(b) Water, copper, wood
(c) Air, aluminium, wool
(d) Air, water, plastic

72. ‘Cognitive validity’ of science curriculum at upper primary stage implies that it should
(a) be age appropriate
(b) use appropriate pedagogical processes in teaching
(c) enable the child to view science as a social enterprise
(d) convey significant and scientifically correct facts

73. The ratio between the lengths of small intestine and large intestine in the human body is
(a) 5 : 1
(b) 1 : 5
(c) 1 : 8
(d) 8 : 1

74. An animal pops out its stomach through its mouth to eat the soft material of those animals which are covered by hard shells of calcium carbonate. After opening the shell and eating the soft material the stomach goes back into the body of the animal to slowly digest the food. The name of this animal is
(a) Octopus
(b) Tortoise
(c) Starfish
(d) Crocodile

75. Study the following table:

Gropu
Parts of stamen
Parts of pistil
A
Anther, filament
Ovary, stigma style
B
Anther, petal
Anther, sepal, stigma
C
Stigma, filament,
Style, stigma, sepal
D
Style, ovary
Anther, filam-ent, ovary

The group in which the parts of stamen and parts of pistil are correctly shown is
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A

76. The image of a distant coloured object formed in a pinhole camera is always
(a) Real, erect, coloured and diminished
(b) Real, inverted, black and white and diminished
(c) Real, inverted, coloured and diminished
(d) Virtual, erect, coloured and diminished

77. The term ‘constructivism’ in relation to science education means that children should be
(a) actively involved in the process of learning science
(b) discouraged to raise questions in the classroom
(c) given latest information on scientific developments
(d) given complete information about science

78. While teaching the topic on ‘Motion and Time’ to class VII students, Savita gave examples of different kinds of motion to the students.
Which one of the following examples was quoted by her incorrectly?
(a) Motion of a boy sitting in a merry- go-round
(b) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell
(c) Motion of a cricket ball hit by a batsman
(d) Motion of a boy sitting in a moving car in relation to the car

79. Anjali asks the following tasks to be performed by students of Class VII while making an electromagnet (not in correct sequence):
(A) Place some pins near the end of a nail
(B) Switch on the current and observe what happens
(C) Wind a copper wire tightly around an iron nail.
(D) Connect free ends of the wire to the terminals of a cell
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of tasks to be performed to achieve the desired result?
(a) C, D, A, B
(b) C, A, B, D
(c) D, C, A, B
(d) A, B, C, D

80. If you carefully dig a grass plant and observe its roots and leaves you will find that it has
(a) taproots and reticulate venation
(b) fibrous roots and reticulate venation
(c) fibrous roots and parallel venation
(d) taproots and parallel venation

81. The metamorphosis of tadpoles is not possible if the water in which they are growing does not contain sufficient
(a) Oxygen
(b) Iodine
(c) Minerals
(d) Calcium

82. In which of the following units is the calorific value of fuels generally expressed?
(a) Kilocalories per kilogram
(b) Joules
(c) Kilojoules per kilogram
(d) Calories per gram

83. Cereals such as wheat and gram are grown in an area. The soil of this area must be
(a) clayey
(b) both sandy and clayey
(c) both clayey and loamy
(d) both loamy and sandy

84. If we add a handful of garden soil to a beaker filled three-quarters with water, stir the contents with a stick to dissolve the soil and then let it stand undisturbed for some time, we observe different layers. The order of these layers from the bottom to the top is
(a) Sand, gravel, clay, water, humus
(b) Clay, sand, gravel, humus, water
(c) Gravel, sand, clay, water, humus
(d) Gravel, clay, sand, humus, water

85. Which of the following endocrine glands secretes sugar controlling hormone?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid
(d) Adrenal

86. Air is a mixture of many gases. The percentage by volume, of the gases other than nitrogen and oxygen, i.e., CO2, methane, argon, ozone and water vapour combined together is about
(a) 1%
(b) 21%
(c) 78%
(d) 0.1%

87. Which of the following commonly used fuels has maximum calorific value?
(a) Diesel
(b) Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
(c) Petrol
(d) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

88. A person is suffering from a disease named ‘Goitre’. Which of the following glands of the person is not functioning properly?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid
(d) Adrenal

89. Select the one which is different from the others in the manner it is applied:
(a) Frictional force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Magnetic force
(d) Electrostatic force

90. When a copper plate is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green material is
(a) a mixture of copper hydroxide and copper sulphate
(b) a mixture of copper carbonate and copper sulphate
(c) a mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide
(d) copper sulphate

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART-III
SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

31. Barometer is used to
(a) measure temperature
(b) measure atmospheric pressure
(c) measure sea level
(d) measure rainfall

32. Which of the following is a popular eco- friendly automobile fuel?
(a) PNG
(b) LPG
(c) KG-6
(d) CNG

33. Which of the following is true with regard to food security?
(a) Government imposes ban on grains exports for maintaining sufficient stock.
(b) Government encourages to produce
(c) Food security exists when all people, at all time have access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food.
(d) Food security exists when government maintains buffer stock of grains for next five years.

34. Which industry is often called backbone of modern industries?
(a) Energy
(b) Transport
(c) Steel
(d) Petroleum

35. ‘Gompas’ found in Ladakh are
(a) Variety of goat
(b) Variety of shawl
(c) Buddhist monks
(d) Buddhist monasteries/temples

36. Which continent is least populated in the world?
(a) Australia
(b) South America
(c) Africa
(d) Europe

37. The Kolkata port is situated on/in the
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) River Hooghly
(c) River Bhagirathi
(d) Ganga Sagar

38. Which of the following statements regarding position of the Earth is true?
(a) The axis of the Earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 23 1/2 with its orbital plane.
(b) The axis of the Earth is an imaginarly line that makes an angle of 66 1/2 with its orbital plane
(c) The axis of the Earth is an imaginarly line that makes an angle of 23 1/2 with its orbital plane.
(d) The axis of the Earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 66 1/2 with its orbital plane

39. Rigveda was originally composed in
(a) Sanskrit Sanskrit
(b) Brahmi
(c) Shauraseni
(d) Prakrit

40. Bharata was a group of people mentioned in the Rigveda. They lived in
(a) North India
(b) West India
(c) North-West India
(d) South India

41. In organic farming
(a) genetic modification is done to increase yield
(b) natural manures and pesticides are used
(c) only production of cotton has been allowed in India
(d) chemical fertilizers are used to increase yield

42. Which of the following areas was known as Magadh in ancient period?
(a) Between Ganga and Yamuna
(b) North of Ganga
(c) Between Yamuna and Chambal
(d) South of Ganga

43. In some areas people started living in villages about 8000 years ago. Which of the following were among these areas?
(a) Sulaiman and Kirthar hills
(b) Ganga and Yamuna doab
(c) Deccan and Konkan
(d) Areas around Narmada

44. Which of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Sotkakoh
(b) Ganweriwal
(c) Chirand
(d) Rakgigarhi

45. Which period is the longest in the human history?
(a) Megalithic age
(b) Mesolithic age
(c ) Neolithic age
(d) Palaeolithic age

46. Ancient Rock Paintings have been found in
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

47. Which of the following was not a reason for hunter-gatherers to move from place to place?
(a) To follow movement of animals which they hunted
(b) To fight for resources with another group of hunter-gatherers
(c) To search for water resources
(d) Staying at one place would deplete resources

48. Puru, Yadu and Bharata are mentioned in Vedas as
(a) Rashtras
(b) Rajanyas
(c) Dasyus
(d) Janas

49. The diagram represents
49.
(a) Convectional Rainfall
(b) Cyclonic Rainfall
(c) Pre-monsoon Rainfall
(d) Orographic Rainfall

50. Which of the following is an example of desert?
(a) Sundarban
(b) Konkan
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Ladakh

51. In which ways did World War I alter the economic and political situation in India?
(a) Common people got benefited as there was a sharp fall in prices
(b) Many princely states rebelled against British rule
(c) Indian industries expanded as war created a demand for industrial goods
(d) Political activities of the Indian National Congress were banned for six years

52. ‘Campos’ found in Brazil is a
(a) tropical grassland
(b) traditional dance
(c) tropical animal
(d) tribe

53. Lakshadweep Islands are located in the
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) South China Sea
(d) Indian Ocean

54. The circle of illumination is the
(a) circle that divides the day from night on the globe
(b) position of the Earth on equinox when day and night are equal
(c) position of the Sun on a particular meridian at 12 : 00 o’clock in noon
(d) circle that divides the globe into two parts

55. Who has written that Raziya was more able and qualified than her brothers?
(a) Badayuni
(b) Minhaj-i-Siraj
(c) Ziyauddin Barani
(d) Al-Biruni

56. Dantidurga, who performed a ritual called
hiranya-garbha was a
(a) Pratihara Chief
(b) Rashtrakuta Chief
(c) Pallava Chief
(d) Chola King

57. Conventionally direction marked ‘A’ represents
57.
Cardinal directions
(a) South
(b) East
(c) West
(d) North

58. In which revenue settlement during the East India Company’s rule, was the village headman made responsible to collect revenue and pay it to the Company?
(a) Permanent Settlement
(b) Ryotwari Settlement
(c) Mahalwari Settlement
(d) Zamindari Settlement

59. In an inscription, a Delhi Sultan is said to have been chosen by the God because he had the qualities like Moses and Solomon. Who was that Delhi Sultan?
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Sikandar Lodi

60. Shafi’i and Hanafi are
(a) Places in Saudi Arabia
(b) Islamic schools of law
(c) Two Islamic rulers
(d) Islamic architecture styles

61. “To understand the importance of knowledge and wisdom of peers’ — is valued in which perspective?
(a) Emotive
(b) Behaviourist
(c) Constructivist
(d) Cognitive

62. To show the change in rainfall in a particular region in a decade, which of the following would be a suitable teaching aid?
(a) Bar-diagram
(b) Frequency polygon
(c) Venn diagram
(d) Flow chart

63. The process of deriving inferences from observable facts is called as
(a) Exposition
(b) Deduction
(c) Brainstorming
(d) Analysis

64. Which of the following descriptions of a learner’s behaviour could be used to assess attitudes and values in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Insisting to work alone
(b) Feeling free to ask questions
(c) Getting good grades in academics
(d) Accepting all the ideas of the teachers

65. During teacher-education, Micro-teaching refers to which of the following?
(a) Teaching a miniature classroom with peers role-playing as students
(b) Teaching students in small groups
(c) Teaching a small chunk of content at a time
(d) Teaching by observing the teacher- educator minutely
66. Diagnostic and remedial teaching in a Social Science classroom will involve
(a) providing a lot of material to read
(b) providing a lot of opportunity for discussions
(c) correcting the errors of students instantly
(d) recognition of specific difficulty of the student

67. Studying the life-history of a village community to understand the education of the young ones is an example of which kind of data?
(a) Narrative data
(b) Clinical case-study data
(c) Primary data
(d) Secondary data

68. Which of the following is an essential quality of creative thinking?
(a) Generative
(b) Reflective
(c) Deductive
(d) Convergent

69. A method used in a Social Science classroom in which learners are asked to evaluate one another’s likeability is called as
(a) Sociometric techniques
(b) Case study
(c) Psychometric techniques
(d) Self-assessment

70. In Social Science, the recent NCF position paper on examination reforms emphasises
(a) continuous assessment
(b) test performance
(c) flexible sitting arrangement while testing
(d) open book exams

71. Which of the following statements is correct about Social Science?
(a) Social Science emphasises homogeneity and rituals
(b) Social Science is a subjectivist discipline
(c) Social Science lays the foundation for an analytical and creative mindset
(d) Social Science is not concerned with diverse concerns of society

72. The wheel diagram shows typical employment opportunities to labourers in rural areas. For how long are they unable to get regular job?
72.
(a) Four months
(b) Five months
(c) Six months
(d) Three months

73. Which of the following would you recommend for peer learning in your classroom?
(a) Computer-aided learning
(b) Participation in routine activities only
(c) Visit to research laboratories
(d) Drama

74. In order to understand the role of various issues during an election, which of the following would you most likely ask your students?
(a) Analyze each party’s priorities and the types of policies it is most likely to support
(b) Conduct survey in your locality for the popularity of political parties
(c) Analyze and compare the time devoted by National news channels to different parties
(d) Analyze newspaper editorials regarding arguments against each other by political parties

75. Federalism refers to
(a) Federation of States to run the country
(b) only the Central Government has the right to make laws
(c) Judiciary is the highest authority in the country
(d) existence of more than one level of government in the country

76. According to the Constitution, how many organs of the State are there?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Two

77. What is Zulu?
(a) A language of South Africa
(b) National animal of South Africa
(c) A traditional dance of South Africa
(d) A tribe of South Africa

78. The apostle of Christ, St. Thomas is believed to have come in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Goa

79. Which of the following is an aspect of progressive education in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Functional intelligence
(b) Emphasis on scoring in examination
(c) Respect for plurality and multiplicity
(d) Segregation of learners

80. When a teacher uses individual experiences in order to explain concepts in a Social Science class, then s/he is
(a) channelizing the energies of students
(b) promoting the ability to relate their local reality with the global context
(c) take care of the liguistic and cultural diversity among learners
(d) making the lesson engaging

81. If a politician in one state decides to not allow labourers from other states to work in his state, which Fundamental Right will be violated?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to equality

82. Which of the following constitutes the cultural capital of a student?
(a) Electronic equipments available for use by a student
(b) Educational background of the family
(c) Number of places that a student has visited
(d) Monetary and financial resources

83. The Mid-day Meal Programme is said to have many positive effects. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Caste prejudices have been reduced
(b) Poor students can now concentrate on their studies as they do not have empty stomachs
(c) Poor children are getting high marks in examinations
(d) Enrolment of poor children in schools has increased

84. The Parliament in our system has immense power because
(a) it has the power to overrule judiciary
(b) it is the representative of the people
(c) all powers are vested with the Parliament
(d) it has the power to make laws

85. The Rajya Sabha can have at most
(a) 235 members
(b) 245 members
(c) 260 members
(d) 225 members

86. Which of the following will promote a social learning of rules, regulations and values?
(a) Group discussions
(b) Book reading
(c) Writing essays
(d) Project work

87. In order to teach about equity, which of the following would be the most suitable method?
(a) Give a project
(b) Assign fieldwork around the ideas of poverty and capitalism
(c) Highlight the constitutional provisions to promote equity
(d) Give a lecture

88. In the Indian pluralistic society, textbooks of Social Science should
(a) reflect the government’s views
(b) avoid controversial issues
(c) include and represent all religions and social groups
(d) reflect the majority opinion

89. Which of the following teaching methods would be most effective in Social Science, that teachers must use?
(a) Assign grades liberally
(b) Engage learners in critical and thought provoking activities
(c) Assign home assignments
(d) Ensure that learners have learnt the content by taking repetitive tests

90. Function of the executive in Indian democracy is to
(a) implement laws made by the Parliament
(b) elect the Prime Minister
(c) elect the President
(d) enact laws

Candidates should answer questions from the following Part only if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE-I.

PART IV LANGUAGE I ENGLISH

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
91. The ‘question’ : How will I achieve my teaching goal?, in the design of a language instruction, which helps the
teacher to ‘keep the lesson on target’ is/ are the
(a) Methodology
(b) Evaluation
(c) Documentation
(d) Objectives

92. Language teachers have to do a ‘needs analysis’ of their students to
(a) find out students’ interest in the choice of language
(b) compare the achievement levels among the students
(c) evaluate their existing competenceevaluate their existing competence
(d) measure their learning ability

93. Combining of movement abilities with academics, such as speaking a language, is referred to as
(a) affective skills
(b) motor-perception skills
(c) interaction skills
(d) cognitive skills

94. In this example, their is a deviation from the apparently intended form of an utterance. Identify the error.
Target : I must let the cat out of the house.
Error : I must let the house out of the cat.
(a) word-exchange error
(b) omission
(c) substitution
(d) lexical selection error

95. When the teacher quietly observes the students during a collaborative grammar activity, the activity plays a_____ role.
(a) evaluative
(b) interactive
(c) record keeping
(d) diagnostic

96. The focus is on using the language rather than analysis of the language, and grammar is taught implicitly rather than explicitly.
(a) Communicative Approach
(b) Grammar-translation Method
(c) Structural Method
(d) Direct Approach

97. Teachers may respond to young writers according to their individual needs. How?
(a) Praise what they do well, making specific comments about the work
(b) Encourage them by overlooking certain errors
(c) Reward students who write well before the whole class
(d) Give them detailed feedback on grammatical errors only

98. ___________is the particular way a learner prefers to learn a second or foreign language.
(a) Cognitive process
(b) Behaviourist approach
(c) Literal approach
(d) Cognitive style

99. The students are asked to answer inferential questions about information which was implied by the text. Here, the student’s______ can be evaluated.
(a) listening and writing skills
(b) reading and listening skills
(c) reading skill
(d) speaking skill

100. The benefit of the bilingual approach in a second language classroom is that
(a) students stop using their mother tongue altogether
(b) students understand basic concepts/ assumptions more easily
(c) there is less distraction for students in the class
(d) students gain confidence in the mother tongue

101. How does computer technology support language learning in Classes V and VI, to enhance accuracy in students’ writing?
(a) Detailed error feedback
(b) Spelling and grammar checking
(c) Formatting and font designs
(d) Rapid drill work

102. Individualized educational programmes with intensive support to help students to consolidate their basic knowledge is referred to as
(a) introductory courses
(b) remedial coaching
(c) revision sessions
(d) advanced study programmes

103. Students can master complex language structures without being aware of the fact they are doing so, through
(a) teachers avoiding the teaching of structures altogether
(b) use of grammar games with a focus on relevant structures
(c) more speaking and listening practice with regular feedback
(d) regular, simple grammar practice sessions

104. What are some of the features of a good listening task?
(a) Gives clues and supports completion of the task
(b) Inexpensive to administer for a large number of students
(c) Has a variety of tasks to be chosen from by students
(d) Simple and easily completed in a large class

105. The ‘acquired system’ or ‘acquisition’ of a language is the
(a) subconscious process of learning
(b) input-output process
(c) self-monitoring of learning
(d) formal skills development

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 106 to 114) by selecting the most appropriate option.

The first detailed description of plastic surgical procedures is found in the clinical text on Indian surgery, the Sushruta Samhita which incorporates details of surgical tools and operative techniques. Sushruta wrote,
based on the lectures of his teacher, the famous surgeon king, Devadas. He taught his pupils to try their knives first on natural as well as artificial objects resembling diseased parts of the body before undertaking the actual operations. It is interesting to note that modern surgery stresses so much upon simulation, models and cadaver training before actual performance to increase and improve patient safety. He stressed on both theoretical and practical training and had famously remarked once : “The physician who has only the book of knowledge (Sastras) but is unacquainted with the practical methods of treatment or who knows the practical details of the treatment but from self-confidence, does not study the books, is unfit to practice his calling.” Sushruta considered surgery to be the most important branch of all the healing arts, and had performed and described in detail several complicated operations. This includes operations for intestinal obstruction, hernia repairs, bladder stone, but more importantly, several plastic surgical operations, including those for cleft lip and nose reshaping, which are performed virtually unchanged even today from his descriptions about 3000 years ago!

106. The paragraph focuses on the
(a) life of Sushruta and his work
(b) India’s contribution to medical science
(c) methods of plastic surgery in India
(d) evolution of medicine in India

107. Sushruta’s training consisted of
(a) apprenticeship under a guru
(b) practice on objects similar to human body parts
(c) focusing on non-surgical procedures
(d) acquiring complete theoretical knowledge

108. The passage gives us details about
(a) how to become a good surgeon
(b) how surgery can replace other treatments
(c) how patients have to be treated after surgery
(d) how to perform certain types of surgery

109. The closest meaning of the word ‘undertaking’ is
(a) taking up
(b) trying out
(c) venturing to
(d) experimenting on

110. A word or phrase that can replace ‘virtually unchanged’ in the text is
(a) very well known
(b) factually unaltered
(c) slowly evolving
(d) literally unknown

111. An antonym of the word ‘complicated’ is
(a) stressful
(b) unknown
(c) mysterious
(d) facile

112. The personal quality which Sushruta warns against is
(a) cowardice
(b) rudeness
(c) ignorance
(d) arrogance

113. According to Sushruta, _________are above all healing arts.
(a) surgery and post-operative care
(b) timely administration of medicine and counselling
(c) study of patient’s condition
(d) observation and counselling

114. The writer’s objective here is to
(a) outline about India’s potential in the medical field
(b) draw attention to Indian traditional knowledge
(c) compare modern and ancient practices
(d) present a short history of ancient surgical practices

Directions : Read the given poem and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 115 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Remnants Left Behind
A leaf detaching
herself from a tree
strong winds howling
catching in a gale
just won’t let her be.

A ship sailing on an ocean
being bashed by heavy winds
forcing her to dry land
seeking asylum once again

Footprints in the sand
leaving behind positive
thoughts
until the tide rushes in
and everything is lost.

Remnants of two lovers
once so young, and bold
signatures etched on a heart
A love story never told
Heather Burns

115. The poet’s message here is about the power of
(a) nature that can create or destroy
(b) the sea over human life
(c) human beings over nature
(d) human love that is permanent

116. “…… just won’t let her be ……” uses _______as the poetic device
(a) personification
(b) fallacy
(c) exaggeration
(d) simile

117. In the phrase “.. seeking asylum”, ‘asylum’ here means
(a) shore
(b) beach
(c) cliff
(d) port

118. “… Footprints in the sand …..” symbolises
(a) brief lives
(b) short memories
(c) patterns on the sand
(d) false images

119. The line “Remnants of two lovers …” suggests to the reader that the lovers
(a) have decided to spend their lives together
(b) are no longer in love with each other
(c) are now separated from each other
(d) had died together at sea

120. In “ … signatures etched on a …”, ‘etched’ means
(a) scratched
(b) engraved
(c) cut
(d) chipped

Candidates should answer questions from the following Part only if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE-II.

PART V LANGUAGE II ENGLISH

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
121. Task: A role-play of approximately 2 minutes with the teacher in which the candidate exchanges information making four or five statements and asking three or four questions, including greeting and leave-taking … would assess ______ skills.
(a) speaking
(b) listening
(c) vocabulary
(d) acting

122. Integrating semantic function as a part of grammar instruction requires students to focus on
(a) building fluency use rather than grammatical correctness
(b) accuracy of grammar use in syntax formation
(c) communication of meaning and accuracy of language
(d) drills for the practice of grammatical structures

123. Smaller class size for slow learners facilitates greater personalized instruction in the new language because of
(a) disciplined approach, less interaction and formal assessment
(b) more interaction, flexible schedule and authentic assessment
(c) language focused, formal assessment and flexible schedule
(d) incidental learning, informal assessment and more interaction

124. The progress of teaching-learning of reading skills of a language over a certain period of time may be evaluated
(a) assessing students’ interpretation of the text
(b) setting a reading task with a variety of test items
(c) through student’s appreciation of stylistic devices
(d) by asking students to read aloud a set text

125. New technology is becoming an integral part of our social fabric. This is reflected in the classroom when students are
(a) using a whiteboard during a presentation
(b) on frequent field trips for first-hand experience
(c) narrating during PowerPoint presentation
(d) actively searching for answers using computers

126. How can you get shy students to speak when they do not want to?
(a) Change the topic to suit the student’s ability
(b) Give a list of words with meanings to learn and use
(c) Conduct special classes to practice speaking
(d) Don’t put pressure on them to come up with a response quickly

127. The ‘sandwich-technique’ is a bilingual method which has a three-phase structure of
(a) drills with levels of difficulty
(b) presentation – practice – production
(c) error correction – re-production (as drill)
(d) listening – writing – repetition

128. Formative Assessment of student’s writing skills could be based on
(a) model-making individually
(b) scripting a skit in pairs
(c) a formal written test
(d) group dancing

129. Considering learning styles broaden the approaches taken in the management of language-related problems. Some students prefer to get new information in written directions or verbal information. Their learning style is
(a) visual
(b) kinesthetic
(c) manipulative
(d) auditory

130. Student-generated corrections are important in language learning because
(a) they indicate active engagement in the learning process
(b) more time can be given to grammar drills before production
(c) teachers can conduct more remedial classes
(d) students revise and edit the errors in their own writing or speech

131. The favours the exposure of students to a structure in different contexts that could allow them to apply the rules by themselves
(a) inductive method
(b) deductive method
(c) communicative approach
(d) direct method

132. The second language course is organized on elements of human society and the natural world, without relying on printed text. This is called the ________ method.
(a) natural
(b) grammar-translation
(c) language immersion
(d) situational

133. A short text is read aloud and then students visualize what the passage describes. Then, they tell the teacher about their visualization, or draw a picture. The activity assesses students’
(a) listening comprehension
(b) ability to draw well
(c) accuracy in interpretation
(d) speaking with clarity

134. Emphasis on interaction as both the means and the ultimate goal of learning a language underlies the _______ approach.
(a) silent way
(b) immersion
(c) communicative
(d) comprehension

135. The process of second language acquisition is influenced by languages that the learner already knows. The influence is.
(a) systemic errors
(b) language transfer
(c) phonology
(d) inter-language

Directions : Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 136 to 144) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Archaeology is the scientific study of the human past. It is the means whereby we are able to extend our knowledge of human history beyond the limits of written records. In India, written history goes back many millennia; and, throughout the world, inscriptions on stone and clay tablets are only a few millennia old. Such records encompass only a small fraction of the human story. Archaeology gives us access to the entire specturm of human experience, spanning several million years in Africa. This enormous time depth offers the potential to study long-term cultural processes and the opportunity to learn the lessons of countless cultures. Recovering this knowledge may prove vital to our own survival. Even if the lessons learned do not turn out to have such an immediate and practical value, filling in the blank pages of India’s and the world’s history is an intrinsically worthwhile endeavour. Moreover, historical archaeology can supplement or clarify the knowledge gleaned from more traditional histories. Finally, by increasing our understanding and appreciation of the achievements of ancient cultures, archaeology can provide a significant boost to heritage tourism.

Although I argue that archaeology could save the world – or at least our civilization’s precarious hold on it, I freely confess that I did not become an archaeologist to save the world, nor to make money. In fact, I chose to become an archaeologist because I was fascinated by the wonders of the past and the prospect of making new discoveries that would shed light on how we came to be what we are seemed to me to be noble thing, to which I could dedicate my life’s work.

136. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) list archaeological sites
(b) present the state of archaeology
(c) present archaeology as a career option
(d) present new excavations

137. According to information in the text, “specturm of human experience” refers to
(a) evidences of human settlement
(b) historical events
(c) geographical feature
(d) lost communities

138. Pick out the correct statement based on your understanding.
(a) Archaeology has no value at all
(b) All locations are found in remote areas
(c) The job of an archaeologist is an uninteresting job for anyone
(d) Society should learn from its past

139. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?
(a) is a subject which is easy to study
(b) is very difficult to practice, professionally
(c) gives few clues about cultural development
(d) offers insight to prevent destruction of human heritage

140. Based on information, it can be assumed that
(a) archaeology contributes to a better understanding of society
(b) universities do not support the Archaeology Department
(c) archaeology is a profitable business for archaeologists
(d) only the rich can afford to travel to archaeological sites

141. It can be inferred that archaeology offers
(a) greater career prospects
(b) no evidence about human evolution
(c) deeper historical insights
(d) an alternative profession

142. In the essay, the writer
(a) chose his profession to understand human behaviour
(b) claims archaeology is a very accurate science
(c) discourages potential archaeologists from going too far
(d) refutes historical evidence, as they often contradict finds

143. The word/phrase “the blank pages” of India’s and the world’s history means
(a) non-literary works
(b) unrecorded facts
(c) empty pages
(d) oral traditions

144. Archaeology is “an intrinsically worthwhile endeavour.” Here ‘intrinsically’ means
(a) uniquely
(b) basically
(c) usually
(d) specially

Directions : Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 145 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Our ship was about 120 tons burden, carried fourteen men, besides the master, his boy, and myself; we had on board no large cargo of goods. The same day I went on board we set sail, standing away to the northward upon our own coast, with design to stretch over for the African coast when we came about ten or twelve degrees of northern latitude, which, it seems, was the manner of their course in those days. We had very good weather, all the way upon our own coast, till we came to the height of Cape St. Augustino; from whence, keeping further off at sea, we lost sight of land. In this course we passed about twelve days’ time, when a violent tornado, or hurricane, took us quite out of our knowledge. It blew in such a terrible manner, that for twelve days together we could do nothing but drive; nor did any in the ship expect to save their lives. In this distress we had, besides the terror of the storm, one of our men died of the calenture, and a man and a boy washed overboard. About the twelfth day, the weather started abating a little, the master made an observation as well as he could, and found that he was in about eleven degrees of north latitude, but that he was in about eleven degrees of north latitude, but that he was twenty-two degrees of longitude difference west from Cape St. Augustino; so that he found he was gotten upon the north part of Brazil. Now he began to consult with me what course he should take; for the ship was leaky, and very much disabled, and he was for going directly back to the coast of Brazil.

145. The main theme of the extract is about a
(a) voyage by ship
(b) ship caught in a storm
(c) fishing expedition
(d) storm at sea

146. As used in the extract, which is the best definition of ‘design’?
(a) wish
(b) purpose
(c) scheme
(d) disfigure

147. Based on infromation in the passage, it can be inferred that
(a) they were sailing westwards during the storm
(b) they were going to trade in Brazil
(c) they were on an adventure trip
(d) there were two sailors and a master

148. They decided to opt for the change of destination because
(a) they had lost their way
(b) the ship was not sea-worthy
(c) the new course was smooth sailing
(d) it was still stormy at sea

149. Who was drowned in the storm?
(a) An older passenger
(b) The ship’s captain
(c) The writer himself
(d) A young sailor

150. The shipmen had travelled a total of ______ days before touching shore again.
(a) 24
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 12

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