Center Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) exam successfully conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) on 21 February 2016, on a various selected exam center all over the Nation. A lot of Candidates appeared in this exam. Appeared candidates will be eagerly checking the Answer Key on educational website like www.edupil.com, careervendor.com. Without wasting time to visit other website download here CTET Answer Key before official Answer Key.

Official Center Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Answer Key will be released soon on official website ctet.nic.in. Before Official CTET Answer Key Solved Paper team providing you a unofficial and tentative CTET Answer Key. Through this unofficial Answer Key an eager candidates can check thier perfomance in the examination and can know how many answers they have marked correclty.

CTET Answer Key 21 February 2016:

  • CTET Paper Ist Consists 150 questions. There are 30 MCQs each in the five sections namely child development and peadagogy, language I, language II, mathematics, environmental studies
  • CTET Paper IInd Consists 150 questions. There are 30 MCQs each in three sections namely Child Development and pedagogy, language I, language II.
  • Mathematics and Science candidates attempt 60 questions for mathematics and science segment. Social studies candidates attempt social studies/science segment.
  • Each question carries one mark for correct answer without negative marking.

Part-I
Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

  1. Which one of the following is a good example of ‘scaffolding (learning of a problem solving task till the student is able to do it by herself)?
    (a) Offering a reward for solving the problem quickly
    (b) Telling her that she can do it by trying again and again
    (c) Providing a half-solved example
    (d) Telling her she cannot go home till she solves the problem
  2. Your calss has learners with different learning styles. To assess them, you would give them
    (a) a uniform set of instructions and subsequently label the children according to their marks in the test
    (b) the same set of tasks and tests
    (c) a variety of tasks and test
    (d) the same time to perform on the tests
  3. Nowadays, there is a tendency to refer to ‘wrong concepts’ of children as ‘alternative conceptions’. This could be attributed to
    (a) CHildre’s understanding being nuanced and their bein passive in their own learning
    (b) recognition that children are capable fo thinking and their thinking is different from that of adults
    (c) using fancy terms to describe children’s errors
    (d) children being thought of as adult-like in their thinking
  4. Which one of the following best describes a teacher’s role in a middle school classroom?
    (a) Discouraging multiple perspectives and focusing on uni-dimensional perspective
    (b) Using PowerPoint presentations to given lectures
    (c) Providing opportunities for discussions
    (D) Promoting students to compete amongst themselves for the first position
  5. Which one of the following statements about motivation and learning is correct?
    (a) Motivation does not have any role to play in learning.
    (b) Learning is effective only when the students are motivated using external rewards.
    (c) Learning is effective only when the students have intrinsic motivation-a desire to learn from inside
    (d) Learning is effective only when the students are extrinsically motivated- motivated by external factors
  6. Which one of the following statements about learning is correct?
    (a) Learning is a passive receptive process.
    (b) Learning does not depend on learner’s previous knowledge
    (c) Learning equivalent to acquisition of skills
    (d) Learning is facilitated by social actions.
  7. Which one of the following is an important activity to enable children to learn?
    (a) Reward
    (b) Dialogue
    (c) Lecture
    (D) Instruction
  8. Which one of the following statements about development is correct?
    (a) Development proceeds from birth to adolescence in a forward manner and then it goes backwards.
    (b) Developmental changes go forward in a straight line
    (c) Development occurs at a different rate among different individuals.
    (d) development occurs at a very fast pace from birth till adolescence and then it stops.
  9. Middle childhood is the period from
    (a) 10 years onwards
    (b) birth to 2 years
    (c) 2 years to 6 years
    (D) 6 years to 11 years
  10. “Environmental factors do not play any role in shaping an individual, since growth of each individual is determined by his genetic makeup.” This statement is
    (a) incorrect, since there have been several researches to prove that environment can have a major influence on development
    (b) correct, since genetic makeup of an individual is very strong
    (c) correct, since there have been several researches to prove that genetic material alone predicts and individual’s development
    (d) incorrect, since environmental factors contribute little in an individual’s development
  11. ____ is a process through which a human infant begins to acquire the necessary skills to perform as a functioning member of the society.
    (a) Development
    (b) Socialization
    (c) Learning
    (d) Maturation
  12. According to Piaget, which one of the following factors plays an important role in influencing development?
    (a) Reinforcement
    (b) Language
    (c) Experience with the physical world
    (d) Imitation
  13. The cognitive ability that comes in pre-operational period is
    (a) hypothetico-deductive thinking
    (b) ability for abstract thinking
    (c) ability of goal-directed behavior
    (d) ability to take other’s perspective
  14. Which one fo the following is a correctly matched pair?
    (a) Social contract orientation – Physical consequence of an action determine whether it is good or bad
    (b) Punishment and obedience orientation – Laws are not fixed, but can be changed for the good of society
    (c) Good boy and good girl orientation – One earns approval by being nice
    (d) Law and order orientation –Ethical principles are self-chosen on the basis of the value of human rights
  15. The concept of ‘private speech’ of children as proposed by Vygotsky
    (a) shows that children are stupid and thus need guidance of adults
    (b) illustrates that children are egocentric
    (c) shows that children love themselves
    (d) illustrates that children use speech to guide their own actions
  16. According to Vygotsky, learning cannot be separated form
    (a) perception and attentional processes
    (b) its social context
    (c) reinforcement
    (d) a measurable change in behavior
  17. Progressive education entails that the classroom is
    (a) in full control of the teacher, who is dictatorial
    (b) democratic and there is space given to children for understanding
    (c) authoritarian, where the teacher dictates and the students follow meekly
    (d) free for al with the teacher absent from it
  18. Which one fo the following illustrates a person with linguistic intelligence?
    (A) The ability to handle long chains of reasoning
    (b) Sensitivity to the meaning and order of words and the varied uses of language
    (c) Sensitivity to pitch, melody and tone
    (d) The ability to notice and make distinctions among others
  19. Language ____ thought processes.
    (a) cannot determine the
    (b) does not influence the
    (c) totally governs our
    (d) has an influence on our
  20. A textbook of Class VIII has following illustrations – women as teachers and maids while men as doctors and pilots This type of depiction is likely to promote
    (a) gender empowerment
    (b) gender stereotyping
    (c) gender role play
    (d) gender constancy
  21. There are vast differences among the students. Of these, a teacher needs to be sensitive to
    differences based on cognitive capabilities and learning levels
    II. Differences based on diversity of language, caste, gender, religion, community
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) Neither I nor II
    (b) Only I
    (c) Only II
    (d) Both I and II
  22. Assessment by only paper-pencil tests
    (a) promotes holistic assessment
    (b) limits assessment
    (c) facilitates comprehensive evaluation
    (d) facilitates continuous evaluation
  23. A teacher has a ‘hearing impaired’ child in her middle school class. It is important for her to
    (a) ask the school counsellor to talk to the child’s parents and tell them to withdraw their child from school
    (b) make the child sit at a place from where she can see the teacher’s lips and facial expressions clearly
    (c) keep pointing to what the child cannot do over and over again
    (d) ridicule the child and make her sit separately so that she joins and institution for hearing impaired
  24. A teacher can effectively respond to the needs of the children from ‘disadvantaged sections’ of society by
    (a) adapting her pedagogy to the needs of every child in the classroom
    (b) ignoring their background and asking them to do chores in the schools
    (c) making them sit separately in the classroom so that they do not mix with other children
    (d) telling other children to treat the children from disadvantaged background with sympathy
  25. Children with learning disability
    (a) are very active, but have a low IQ
    (b) are very wise and mature
    (c) cannot learn anything
    (d) struggle with some aspects of learning
  26. Teachers can encourage children to think creatively by
    (a) giving them multiple-choice questions
    (b) asking them to think of different ways to solve a problem
    (c) asking them to memorize answers
    (d) asking them recall-based questions
  27. Which one of the following philosophical perspectives needs to be followed to deal with children with special needs?
    (a) They have a right to inclusive education and study in regular schools.
    (b) They do not need any education at all
    (c) They should be segregated and put in separate educational institutions.
    (d) They should be given only vocational training.
  28. Learner-centered approach means
    (a) use of methods in which teacher is the main actor
    (b) method where learners’ own initiative and efforts are involved in learning
    (c) that teachers draw conclusions for the learners
    (d) traditional expository method
  29. Which one of the following is central to learning?
    (a) Imitation
    (b) Meaning-making
    (c) Conditioning
    (d) Rote memorization
  30. In a constructivist classroom as envisioned by Piaget and Vygotsky, learning
    (a) is offering of reinforcement by the teacher
    (b) is constructed by the students themselves who play an active role
    (c) is dictated by the teacher and the students are passive recipients of the same
    (d) happens by pairing of stimulus and response

Part-II
Mathematics and Science

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

  1. Two complementary angels are in the ratio 2:3. Find these angles.”
    The above problem from NCERT textbook of Class VII refers to
    (a) higher order thinking as it demands construction of a figure using given information
    (b) lower order thinking as it based on recalling information
    (c) lower order thinking as it is based on using the information in concrete situation
    (d) higher order thinking as it demands the interpretation of given information, its analysis and use in getting the desired information
  2. “Prove that there is no rational number whose square is 2.” This type of proof is
    (a) proof by contraposition
    (b) direct proof
    (c) proof by contradiction
    (d) proof by counter-example
  3. Consider the following statement:
    “If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other, them the quadrilateral is a parallelogram.”
    This statement is a/an
    (a) definition
    (b) theorem
    (c) axiom
    (d) proposition
  4. ‘Representation’ in Mathematics does not refer to
    (a) expressing the number sequence through geometrical patterns
    (b) expressing the relation between two variables as an equation
    (c) expressing an important geometrical result as a theorem
    (d) expressing the given data through graphs
  5. In NCERT exemplar book for Class VIII at the end of Unit 5, ‘Understanding quadrilaterals and practical geometry’, lots of activities like constructing tessellation, constructing tangrams, etc., are given. One of the objectives of such tasks is to help
    (a) all learners with different learning styles and to enhance spatial orientation
    (b) visual learners only to improve their analytical skills
    (c) kinesthetic learners only to improve their visual thinking skills
    (d) auditory learners only to improve their creative skills
  6. Which one of the following statements is not true about projects in Mathematics?
    (a) They make scoring easy in Mathematics.
    (b) They promote inquiry Skills.
    (c) They enhance problem-solving skills
    (d) They establish interdisciplinary
  7. Which one of the following activities is not appropriate for data representation and data interpretation?
    (a) Newspaper report
    (b) Project
    (c) Survey
    (d) Debate
  8. In which one of the following case, the construction of a quadrilateral ABCD is not possible?
    (a) BC = 4.5 cm, AD = 5.5 cm, CD = 5 cm, AC = 5.5 cm and BD = 7 cm
    (b) AB = 6 cm, BC = 9.5 cm , ÐA = 75o, ÐB = 150o and ÐC = 140o
    (c) AB = 3.5 cm, ÐB = 125o, ÐC = 80o, BC = 5.5 cm and CD = 5 cm
    (d) AB = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm, AC = 8 cm, AD = 5.5 cm and DC = 5 cm
  9. Let x be the angle which is equal to its complement and y be angle which is equal to its supplement. Then 2 x + 3 y is equal to
    (a) 135o
    (b) 270o
    (c) 360o
    (d) 180o
  10. How many sides does a regular polygon have if its each angle is of measure 108o?
    (a) 6
    (b) 7
    (c) 8
    (d) 5
  11. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which BD = 40 cm. The lengths of the perpendiculars drawn from the opposite vertices on BD are 16 cm and 12 cm. The area of the quadrilateral (in cm2) is
    (a) 560
    (b) 580
    (c) 600
    (d) 500
  12. Two sheets of paper with measure 22 cm by 28 cm are taken. Each sheet is then rolled into a cylindrer, one having the height 22 cm and the other of height 28 cm. The difference in their volumes (in cm3) will be
    (a) 216
    (b) 294
    (c) 316
    (d) 0
  13. The square and a circle are formed using pieces of wire of length 5024 cm each. The ratio of the area of the square to that the circle is
    (a) 4: p
    (b) p: 8
    (c) 8: p
    (d) p: 4
  14. Anisha and Amit study in class XII. Anisha told Amit that if the marks in Mathematics of each student in the class area increased by 5, the average would go up by 5. She further says that it is true for all numbers. Amit does not it agree and Anisha proves it by taking the case n, instead of 5. Anisha is using
    (a) deductive logic
    (b) common logic
    (c) estimation
    (d) inductive logic
  15. Using technology-based games involving factorization of numbers or formation of new shapes by joining 2 D shapes, etc.
    (a) enhances students ability to understanding the concepts better as they are able to explore, observe and their own pace
    (b) helps teacher to assess students’ performance in Mathematics
    (c) helps teacher to manage students in Mathematics laboratory
    (d) enhances students numeracy skills and computation skills
  16. Writing roofs in geometry implies
    (a) argument or justification of statements
    (b) description of a geometrical problem
    (c) steps of drawing a figure
    (d) two-column table of axioms and deductions
  17. Consider the following statements:
    “If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other, then the quadrilateral is a parallelogram.” This statements is a/an
    (a) axiom
    (b) proposition
    (c) theorem
    (d) definition
  18. If x = 2/3 and y = 3/4, then a rational number between (x – y)-1 and (x-1 – y-1) is
    (a) 2/3
    (b) -71/2
    (c) -71/12
    (d) 1/6
  19. If 0.001 + 1.01 + 1.001 – (1.03 x 0.1) + (1.11 / 0.1) + x = 1.4 x (1/10)-1 then the value of x is
    (a) 0.919
    (b) 0.785
    (c) 0.758
    (d) 0.991
  20. If 3 (5x – 7) – 4 (8x – 13) = 2 (9x – 11) – 17, then the value of (7 x – 5)/(11 x – 9) is
    (a) -14/31
    (b) -9/13
    (c) 9/13
    (d) 14/31
  21. If (sqrt.1058 x sqrt.648)/x = 18, then the value of x is
    (a) 36
    (b) 46
    (c) 58
    (d) 23
  22. What is the value of A such that cube root 500 x cube root (-3456) = 40 x A is true ?
    (a) – 3
    (b) – 12
    (c) – 15
    (d) – 2
  23. The value of m such that (2/9)3 x (4/81)-6 = (2/9)2m 1 is
    (a) – 6
    (b) 0
    (c) – 4
    (d) 3
  24. Let x = 597 x 1022 + 73.5 x 1021. When x is expressed in standard form as 6.0435 x 10m, then the value of m is
    (a) 22
    (b) 23
    (c) 24
    (d) 21
  25. If 2 m – 1/2 m = 2, where m does not equal to 0, then the value of m2 + 1/16 m2 is
    (a) 5/2
    (b) 2
    (c) 3/2
    (d) 4
  26. One of the factors of x4 + 4 is
    (a) x2 + 2
    (b) x2 + 2 x – 2
    (c) x2 – 2 x + 2
    (d) x2 – 2
  27. The mean of the five observations x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 is 11. Then the mean of the first three observations is
    (a) 12
    (b) 2
    (c) 20
    (d) 9
  28. A bag has 5 red marbles, 4 green marbles and 3 blue marbles. All marbles are identical in all respects other than colour. A marble is taken out from the bag without looking into it. What is the probability that it is a non-green marble?
    (a) 1/3
    (b) 2/3
    (c) 7/12
    (d) 5/12
  29. If AB x BC = BCD, were A, B and C stand for just one A does not equal B does not equal C, then the value of A + b + C is
    (a) 9
    (b) 8
    (c) 6
    (d) 10
  30. If x, y and z represent the number of faces, number of vertices and number of edges respectively of a polyhedral, then which of the following is true?
    (a) x + 2 = z – y
    (b) x – 2 = x – y
    (c) y – 2 = z + x
    (d) x – 2 = z – y
  31. Ravi purchased two articles for Rs. 1, 500 each. He sold them, gaining 6%, on one and losing 4% on the other. His gain/lose percent in the whole transaction is
    (a) gain, 1%
    (b) loss, 3/2%
    (c) gain, 2%
    (d) loss, 1%
  32. Select from the following a group of disease caused by bacteria.
    (a) Malaria, Polio and Typhoid
    (b) Chickenpox, Pneumonia and Tyhpoid
    (c) Tuberculosis, Pneumonia and Typhoid
    (d) Chickenpox, Influenza and Polio
  33. Which of the following statements are true about veins in human circulatory system?
    All veins carry carbon dioxide-rich blood.
    B. Veina have thin walls
    C. Veins carry blood from different organs to heart.
    (a) B and C
    (b) A and C
    (c) A, B and C
    (d) A and B
  34. Cellulose-rich food substances (i.e., roughages) are considered an essential component of a balanced diet of human beings. Which one of the following statement about cellulose?
    (a) Human beings do not have cellulose-digesting enzymes
    (b) Cellulose is a type of carbohydrate, which gets absorbed in the human blood and gives energy
    (c) Cellulose breaks down easily into smaller components which are egested as roughages.
    (d) The cellulose-digesting bacteria present in human beings convert cellulose into fibers.
  35. The joint between head and upper jaw is an example of
    (a) pelvic joint
    (b) fixed joint
    (c) ball and socket joint
    (d) hinged joint
  36. Identify the correct statement(s) :
    The freshwater stored in ground us less than that present in the rivers and lakes of the world
    B. Water shortage is a problem faced by people only in rural areas.
    C. Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields.
    D. Rain is the ultimate source of water.
    (a) A and B
    (b) A, B and C
    (c) Only D
    (d) A and C
  37. The assessment in science should focus on
    (a) getting accurate results while conducting the experiments
    (b) the ability to make neat and clear diagrams
    (c) the understanding of concepts and processes
    (d) precise definition and convert answers
  38. Which of the following makes good open-ended question(s)?
    What difficulties would we face if our bodies did not have muscles inti?
    B. What is the difference between the stem of a rose plant, mango tree and tulsi?
    C. Snake and snail have very different styles of movement. Why is it so?
    D. Observe various roots and write their features.
    (a) Only A
    (b) Only C
    (c) A and C
    (d) B and D
  39. Sometimes the students have alternative conception related to various science concepts. What should the science teacher do?
    (a) Ignore their ideas
    (b) Help the students revisit their ideas through various activities
    (c) Skolt the students for having non-scientific ideas
    (d) Tell the students that their ideas are ‘wrong’ and teach them the correct concept
  40. Which of the following statements indicate(s) a good science classroom?
    (A) The leaners devise their own experiments and record their observations.
    (B) The learners observe the demonstration by the teacher and write its steps.
    (C) The learners are free to ask many questions
    (D) The teacher, along with the textbook, uses multiple resources to teach.
    (a) Only B
    (b) B and C
    (c) A, B and D
    (d) A and C
  41. Somia usually takes her Class VII students on a field trip. Which of the following could be the objective(s)?
    It provides concrete experiences to students.
    B. She can give them assignments and projects for formative assessment.
    C. It enhances process skills of students.
    D. It saves her teaching time.
    (a) Only A
    (b) Only D
    (c) B and C
    (d) A, B and C
  42. Which one of the following assessment strategies is most appropriate to assess the experimental skills of students in a science classroom?
    (a) Checklist
    (b) Concept mapping
    (c) Paper-pencil test
    (d) Practical record
  43. “Open a water tap. Adjust the flow so that it forms a thin stream. Charge a refill. Bring it near the water stream. Observe what happens, Write a short report on the activity.”
    The skill(s) developed in the students through this activity is/are
    (a) observation, experimentation and creativity
    (b) observation only
    (c) experimentation only
    (d) observation, experimentation and communication
  44. Identify the incorrect statement about the nature of science.
    (a) Speculation and conjecture also have a place in science, but ultimately a scientific theory, to be acceptable, must be verified by relevant observations and/or experiments
    (b) Science is considered as value natural and objective, and the laws of science are viewed as fixed.
    (c) The methodology of science and its demarcation from other fields continue to be a matter of philosophical debate.
    (d) Even the most established and universal laws of science are always regarded as provisional, subject to modification in the light of new observation, experiments and analyses.
  45. Which one of the following strategies are most appropriate for a teacher to teach the topic ‘Save Energy’?
    Ask students to write slogans on saving energy
    B. Write at least five ways to save energy
    C. Make a model/project to depict energy saving
    D. Encourage students to save energy in various ways in their lives
    (a) A, B and D
    (b) A, C and D
    (c) B, C and D
    (d) A, B and C
  46. There are two planets in our solar system whose periods of revolution around the sun are less than those of our earth, but their periods of rotation are more as compared to those of the earth. These planets are
    (a) Mars and Jupiter
    (b) Mercury and Saturn
    (c) Mercury and Venus
    (d) Uranus and Neptune
  47. The melting point (inoC) of Sulphure (S), Aluminum (Al) and Iron (Fe) are 113, 666 and 1535 respectively. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) Only Fe is solid at 200oC
    (b) Al and Fe are solid at 200oC
    (c) Fe, S and Al are solids at 200oC
    (d) Only S is solid at 200oC
  48. An electric circuit is set up in such a way that the positive terminal of a battery V is connected to a bulb B1 which is connected to bulb B2. B2 is finally connected to the negative terminal of the negative of the battery. Both the bulbs are glowing> If the value of R is increased, then
    (a) both B1 and B2 will become dimmer
    (b) B1 will become dimmer but brightness of B2 will remain unchanged
    (c) B2 will become dimmer but brightness of B1 will remain unchanged
    (d) both B1 and B2 will remain unchanged
  49. Read the given statements and select the correct option :
    Statement A :
    The range of clinical thermometer is from 35oC to 42 o
    Statement B :
    The range of laboratory thermometer is usually from 10 oC to 110 oC.
    (a) Statement B is correct but statement A is false
    (b) Bothe statement A and statement B are correct
    (c) Both statement A and statement B are false
    (d) Statement A is correct but statement B is false
  50. Which one of the following places in India is most likely to be affected by cyclones?
    (a) Puri
    (b) Amritsar
    (c) Udaipur
    (d) Badrinath
  51. The air near a heat source gets hot and rises. The air from the sides comes in take its place. This is the way in which the air gets heated by oil heaters. What is this process called?
    (a) Diffusion
    (b) Conduction
    (c) Convection
    (d) Radiation
  52. A book if lying at rest on the surface of a table. Which one of the following statements is true about the force(s) acting on it?
    (a) Only frictional force is acting on it.
    (b) There is no force acting on it.
    (c) There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it.
    (d) Only gravitational force is acting on it.
  53. Read the given statements and select the correct option :
    Statement A :
    Husk is separated from heavier seeds of grain by winnowing.
    Statement B :
    Difference in the size of particles in a mixture is utilized to separate them by the process of sieving and filtration.
    (a) Statement B is correct but statement A is false
    (b) Bothe statement A and statement B are correct
    (c) Both statement A and statement B are false
    (d) Statement A is correct but statement B is false
  54. The pressure in a fluid that is at rest
    (a) acts in all directions
    (b) acts only in vertical direction
    (c) acts only in downward direction
    (d) acts only sideways
  55. Which of the following statements are true about image formation in a plane mirror?
    The image is larger in size than the object
    B. The image is formed at the same distance as the object.
    C. The image is laterally inverted.
    D. The image is virtual.
    (a) A, B, C and D
    (b) A, B and C
    (c) B, C and D
    (d) A, C and D
  56. All of the following are single-called, except
    (a) hen’s egg
    (b) zygote
    (c) embryo
    (d) paramecium
  57. Read the following examples from daily life and select the appropriate option:
    When food gets spoiled, it produces a foul smell.
    B. A slice of apple acquires brown color when kept out for some time.
    C. When an ant bite, calamine is used to ease the irritation on skin.
    (a) All are chemical changes.
    (b) A and B represent chemical changes
    (c) B is a physical change
    (d) A and B are physical changes
  58. A students burn a magnesium ribbon in air and dissolves the ash of the ribbon left after burning in distilled water. On pouring one drop each of this solution, first in blue litmus and then in red litmus solution, he would observe that
    (a) blue litmus turns colorless, whereas the red litmus remains red
    (b) blue litmus remains blue, whereas the red litmus turns blue
    (c) blue litmus red, whereas the red litmus remains red
    (d) blue litmus turns red, whereas the red litmus turns blue

 

Pat-IV
Social Studies / Social Science

Directions:  Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

  1. Why is the study of Social Science ‘scientific’?
    (a) It comprises systematically acquired verified knowledge.
    (b) It helps its reader to study the scientific society.
    (c) It uses scientific terms in its content.
    (d) It fulfills the demand for calling Social Studies as science.
  2. You have to depict the proportion of time a rural worker spends as employed, underemployed and unemployed in a year. Which one of the following diagrammatic representations would you select?
    (a) Bar diagram
    (b) Pie diagram
    (c) Time-line diagram
    (d) Flow diagram
  3. Select the most appropriate reason for assessing students through art in Social Science subjects.
    (a) It is a means to enjoy different styles of expression depicted in the textbook.
    (b) It improve students’ artistic ability.
    (c) It makes it an enjoyable way of evaluation.
    (d) It provides an opportunity for personal interpretation of concepts.
  4. Which one of the following projects on ‘global warming’ is based on secondary sources?
    (a) A collage of pictures on global warming
    (b) Interviews with elders living in an area on changes in weather
    (c) A graphical representation of unanalyzed weather data collected from meteorological office
    (d) A discussion based on the weather changes mentioned in a book
  5. A teacher provides some criteria to students and asks them to assess their projects on those bases. Which one of the following assessment measures has been adopted by the teacher?
    (a) Formative assessment
    (b) Peer assessment
    (c) Self-assessment
    (d) Summative assessment
  6. What is the nomenclature change suggested by the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 for Civics?
    (a) Geography
    (b) History
    (c) Social and Political Life
    (d) Economics
  7. Which value will you emphasize the least in the upper primary Social Science class room form among the following?
    (a) Cooperation
    (b) Competitiveness
    (c) Scientific approach
    (d) Equality
  8. What is the purpose of summative assessment of students?
    (a) Assessing at the end of the term
    (b) Assessing during the class
    (c) Assessing a project
    (d) Assessing at the end of a lesson
  9. Suppose a teacher has to teach the chapter, ‘The Cold Desert-Ladakh’ in Class VII. Which one of the following methods would be most appropriate?
    (a) Workshop method
    (b) Survey method
    (c) Case study method
    (d) Regional method
  10. Which one of the following methods is most relevant for the teaching of historical facts/ historiography at the upper primary level?
    (a) Map method
    (b) Project method
    (c) Problem-solving method
    (d) Source method
  11. The National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 recommends that children’s school education must be linked with
    (a) the annual examinations
    (b) the outside school environment
    (c) the mainstream opinions
    (d) the conditions of the school infrastructure
  12. On which of the following choices is the data best represented by a bar diagram?
    (a) Air pressure
    (b) Temperature
    (c) Rainfall
    (d) Humidity
  13. In order to develop an understanding of democratic institutions, choose the most appropriate curricular approach from the following.
    (a) Provide examples of realities along with ideal situation
    (b) Describe ideal situations
    (c) Provide mainly national level examples
    (d) Introduce students to harsh realities
  14. In which one of the following languages, mathematician and astronomer, Aryabhata wrote his book, Aryabhatiyam?
    (a) Prakrit
    (b) Hindi
    (c) Pali
    (d) Sanskrit
  15. Which one of the following Stupas is marked as the place where the Buddha preached his first message?
    (a) Bodh Gaya
    (b) Sarnath
    (c) Sanchi
    (d) Thotlakonda
  16. Which were the three dynasties referred to as ‘Muvendar’ in Sangam Poems?
    (a) The Cheras, the Pals and the Rashtrakutas
    (b) The Cholas, the Rashtrakutas and the Pandyas
    (c) The Palas, the Cholas and the pandyas
    (d) The Cholas, the Cheras and the pandyas
  17. The Rampurwa bull, a polished stone sculpture, now placed in Rashtrapati Bhawan, was built during the reign of which one of the following?
    (a) The Pandyas
    (b) The mauryas
    (c) The Cholas
    (d) The Kushanas
  18. Who among the following propounded the doctrine of ‘Vishishtadvaita’?
    (a) Allama Prabhu
    (b) Shankara
    (c) Ramanuja
    (d) Basavanna
  19. An archive is a place where
    (a) remains of the building made of stone and bricks found by archaeologists are kept
    (b) sculptures found in excavations are kept
    (c) historical manuscripts and documents are kept
    (d) excavated bones of animals and birds are kept
  20. Which one of the following statements is correct about the veerashaiva Movement initiated during the mid-twelfth century in Karnataka?
    (a) It argued against Brahmanical ideas about caste and treatment of women.
    (b) It was initiated by Namdev and his companions.
    (c) It focused on worship of Vitthala.
    (d) It was against all forms of ritualism but promoted idol worship.
  21. Consider the following two statements A and B about ‘Bandagan’ in the early Delhi Sultanate and CHoos ehte correct answer:
    ‘Bandagan’ were special slaves purchased for military service and were trained with great care to hold the most important political offices in the kingdom.
    B. ‘Bnadagan’ were totally dependent upon their masters. So the Sultans could not trust and rely upon them.
    (a) A is true and B is false
    (b) A is false and B is true
    (c) Both A and B are true
    (d) Both A and B are false
  22. Who among the following sailors sailed westwards across the Atlantic Ocean to find a sea-route to India?
    (a) Xuan Zang
    (b) Vasco da Gama
    (c) Christopher Columbus
    (d) Fa Xiam
  23. Which among the following dynasties introduced Malayalam language and script in its inscriptions?
    (a) The Kushanas
    (b) The Cholas
    (c) The Cheras
    (d) The Pandyas
  24. The Revolt of Songram Snagma in 1906 took place because
    (a) the peasants in Champaran revolted against the indigo planters
    (b) the Muslim traders in Bengal rose against the unequal terms of trade set by the British
    (c) the Patidar peasants of Gujarat rebelled against the high land revenue demand of the British
    (d) the tribal groups in Assam reacted against the colonial forest laws
  25. The Simon Commission, sent by the British to India in 1927, was opposed because
    (a) it had only English educated Indian representatives
    (b) it had no Indian representative on it
    (c) it had very few Indian representatives as compared to the British
    (d) it had no Indian woman representative
  26. Match the following:
    Movement/Organization Reformer
    (A) Brahmo Samaj                                           Swami Vivekananda
    (B) Young Bengal Movement                      2. Sayyid Ahmad Khan
    (C) Ramakrishna Mission                              3. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
    (D) Aligarh Movement                                   4. Keshab Chandra Sen
    (a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
    (b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  27. Veteran Gandhian leader Pottin Sriramulu went on hunger strike in 1952, demanding the formation of which of the following States?
    (a) Telangana
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
  28. Who among the following was an exponent of the notion of Wadhat-i-deen that upholds the essential oneness of all religions?
    (a) Baji Muhammad
    (b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
    (c) Maulana Azad
    (d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
  29. The main latitude that passes almost halfway through India is
    (a) the Arctic Circle
    (b) the Equator
    (c) the Tropic of Capricorn
    (d) the Tropic of Cancer
  30. Which one of the following defines ‘Earth Day’?
    (a) The days on which the days and nights are equal all over the earth
    (b) The motion of the earth around the sun in its orbit
    (c) The distances between the longitudes
    (d) The period of one rotation of the earth around its axis
  31. Match the following:
    Types of Vegetation Species of Plants
    (A) Torpical rain forest                   Sundari
    (B) Tropical deciduous forest      2. Babool
    (C) Thorny bushes                           3. Mahogany
    (D) Mangrove forest                      4. Sal
    (a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  32. India’s research stations named ‘Maitri’ and ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ are located in which one of the following continents?
    (a) Europe
    (b) Australia
    (c) Africa
    (d) Antarctica
  33. Consider the following two statements A and B about the ocean currents and choose the correct answer:
    The warm ocean currents originate near the Equator and move towards the Poles.
    B. The cold ocean currents carry water from lower latitudes to higher latitudes.
    (a) Both A and B are false
    (b) A is true and B is false
    (c) Both A and B are true
    (d) A is false and B is true
  34. ‘Transhumance’ refers to
    (a) urban to rural migration of labour force during harvesting period
    (b) seasonal movement of people for their livelihood
    (c) Seasonal movement of people with their livestock in search of new pastures
    (d) seasonal movement of wild animals
  35. Match the following:
    Types of Rocks Examples
    (A) Intrusive igneous rocks          Limestone
    (B) Extrusive igneous rocks          2. Sandstone
    (C) Sedimentary rocks                   3. Basalt
    (D) Metamorphic rocks                 4. Granite
    (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    (b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  36. ‘Chinook’, a local wind, blown in which of the following regions?
    (a) The pampas
    (b) The Velds
    (c) The Prairies
    (d) The Savannas
  37. Which one of the following atmospheric layers helps in radio transmission?
    (a) Thermosphere
    (b) Stratosphere
    (c) Troposphere
    (d) Mesosphere
  38. Which one of the following is a variety of ‘gold wrought’?
    (a) Jute
    (b) Silk
    (c) Cotton
    (d) Nylon
  39. Population density refers to
    (a) the way in which people are spread across the earth’s surface
    (b) the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface
    (c) the number of people living in a particular area
    (d) the number of people living during a specific time
  40. Which one of the following methods is used to take out minerals lying near the surface of the earh?
    (a) Shaft mining
    (b) Open-cast mining
    (c) Quarrying
    (d) Drilling
  41. ‘Basket weeaving’ is an example of which one of the following types of industry?
    (a) Large scale
    (b) Cooperative sector
    (c) Small scale
    (d) Joint sector
  42. Which one of the following statements about monarchy is incorrect?
    (a) The monarch does not have to explain the decisions taken by him/her.
    (b) In a monarchy, people can raise questions about the decisions taken by the monarch.
    (c) In a monarchy, people cannot question the decisions taken by the monarch.
    (d) The final decision-making power lies with the monarch.
  43. On which one of the following rivers is Krishna Raja Sagar Dam constructed?
    (a) Kaveri
    (b) Mahanadi
    (c) Godavari
    (d) Krishna
  44. The Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 provides an equal share in the deceased father’s property to
    (a) wife, daughter (s) and sister(s)
    (b) daughter(s), son(s) and sister(s)
    (c) wife, son(s) and daughter(s)
    (d) wife, son(s) and brother(s)
  45. Who among the following national leaders coined the phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ to describe the Indian National-State?
    (a) Bal gangadhar Tilak
    (b) Mahatma Gandhi
    (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai patel
    (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
  46. Consider the following two statements A and B about the functions of Janpad Panchayat and choose the correct answer:
    The Janapad Panchayat Makes developmental plans at district level.
    B. The Janapad panchayat helps Zila parishad to regulate money distribution among Gram Panchayats.
    (a) Both A and B are false
    (b) A is true and B is false
    (c) A is false and B is true
    (d) Both A and B are true
  47. Consider the following two statements A and B on the Right to Information (RTI) Act and choose the correct answer:
    Through the RTI Act, a citizen can get information pertaining to the working of the departments of the Central Government only.
    B. To get information under the Right to Information under the Right to Information Act, a citizen has to first file a petition in any court of any level.
    (a) Both A and B are false
    (b) A is true and B is false
    (c) A is false and B is true
    (d) Both A and B are true
  48. Who among the following was the writer of the story, Sultana’s Dream?
    (a) Pandita Ramabai
    (b) Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain
    (c) Mumtaz Ali
    (d) Rashsundari Devi
  49. Who among the following wrote the book, Gulamgiri?
    (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    (b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar
    (c) Jyotirao Phule
    (d) Shri Narayan Guru
  50. In the context of Indian judiciary, appellate system means
    (a) that one can plead one’s case in the court without having a degree in law
    (b) separation of power among the legislature, executive and judiciary
    (c) the decisions made by the higher courts are binding on the lower courts
    (d) one can move to a higher court if one feels that the judgment of the lower court it not just
  51. The executive organ of the State refers to
    (a) every citizen of the country exercising universal adult franchise
    (b) the elected representatives
    (c) a group of people responsible for implementing laws and running the government
    (d) the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
  52. Article 22 of the Constitutions ensures
    (a) Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody
    (b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
    (c) Right against Exploitation
    (d) Right to Education
  53. Who among the following is the leader of the ruling party in Lok Sabha?
    (a) The Vice President
    (b) The President}
    (c) The Prime Minister
    (d) The Speaker
  54. Consider the statements A, B and C on upper primary state:
    It is a study of people in their environment.
    B. It is a study of relations among people and their interdependence.
    C. It is a study of the past and its relations to the present.
    Select the most appropriate choice from the above statements.
    (a) A, B and C
    (b) A and B
    (c) B and C
    (d) A and C
  55. Social and Political Life textbooks at the upper primary level cover content related to which of the following subjects?
    (a) International Relations
    (b) Psychology
    (c) Economics
    (d) Philosophy
  56. Why would you ask questions on historical imagination? Choose the most appropriate option form the following.
    (a) It is fun-way to remember dates and events
    (b) It shows how historians fill gaps in history with their imagination.
    (c) It encourages comparison of the present with the past.
    (d) It evaluates a student’s ability to identify sources.
  57. Why would you use narratives in social Science teaching? Choose the most appropriate reason from the given options.
    (a) To ensure that syllabus is completed
    (b) To sensitize students so that they can find appropriate role models
    (c) To entertain and enliven a class
    (d) To link concepts to live realities
  58. According to the National Focus Group (2006), the teaching of Social Science is losing popularity as
    (a) it presents several situations of conflict in human values
    (b) it lays too much emphasis upon scientific temperament
    (c) it is considered as a non – utilitarian subject
    (d) it encourages many subjects of study
  59. Which one of the given choices is an incorrect description of school-based assessment?
    (a) It covers only co-curricular aspects.
    (b) It covers scholastic aspects.
    (c) It covers non-scholastic aspects.
    (d) It covers all aspects.
  60. Consider the following two statements
    A and B on a teacher’s role in transacting a Social Science topic and select the correct answer:
    The teacher must ensure the dignity of all students and conduct discussions with sensitivity.
    B. The teacher must focus upon facts with the boys and the feelings of the girls.
    (a) Neither A nor B
    (b) Only A
    (c) Only B
    (d) Both A and B

PART – IV
Language – II

Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 15) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

  1. A speech community refers to a group of people who
    (a) share homogeneity with reference to their value system
    (b) are multilingual
    (c) are bilingual
    d) share community membership and linguistic community
  2. Activating learners’ scheme means
    (a) dealing with learners having learning difficulties
    (b) showing a picture and asking learners to write a story
    (c) making a link between the topic and learners’ background knowledge and experience
    (d) making a link between the textbook and its structural patterns and grammatical items
  3. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the role of Language Acquisition Device (LAD) is to
    (a) learn language in formal schools
    (b) imitate the language of adults
    (c) generate grammar rules
    (d) memorize grammar rules
  4. Prediction in terms of reading refers to
    (a) previewing
    (b) using prior knowledge of the subject and the ideas in the text as clues to the meaning of unknown words
    (c) using knowledge of subject matter for guessing the content and vocabulary
    (d) paraphrasing
  5. Diphthongs are also known as
    (a) vowels with weak sounds
    (b) glide vowels
    (c) semi-vowels
    (d) pure vowels
  6. Yasmin, an English language teacher, gave her students group work to explore an area and asked then to find important notices and names of places and streets to document them to write a report.
    (a) peer work
    (b) project work
    (c) assignment
    (d) activity-based learning
  7. Mrudusmita, while teaching a lesion on atoms from the science textbook, gave her students activities based on the theme. The activities included vocabulary and debate on the uses of atomic energy. What is this strategy known as?
    (a) Language of science
    (b) Language through science
    (c) Language across curriculum
    (d) Language in other subject
  8. While listening to a speech in English, sometimes we listen to basic of a sound, a syllable and w word, then a decode the meaning of the complete speech. This mental process can be described as
    (a) Interactive model
    (b) Top-down approach
    (c) Bottom-up approach
    (d) Middle-path approach
  9. In free writing, a learner in engaged in
    (a) listing out the thing she/he has just memorized
    (b) writing with specific relation to spelling and grammar
    (c) writing sentence without applying her/his mind
    (d) expressing ideas without giving much attention to spelling and grammar
  10. Susheela discussed a short story in the classroom and asked her students to write an article for a newspaper on the theme of the story. What is this writing known as?
    (a) writing for a newspaper
    (b) Extrapolative writing
    (c) Long answer
    (d) Short essay
  11. A question tag is also known as a
    (a) critical question
    (b) head question
    (c) tail question
    (d) descriptive question
  12. Mind-mapping helps the students to
    (a) learn passively each of the linguistic items
    (b) memorize the grammar rules
    (c) use literary device more effectively in their writing
    (d) brainstorm, explore any idea and expand it
  13. Grammatical structures can be practiced in a controlled manner by
    (a) explaining the use of particular structures
    (b) gap-filling grammar exercises
    (c) correcting wrong sentences written by the learners
    (d) doing composition exercises
  14. Interactive listening means listening
    (a) carefully to what is said and responding
    (b) curiously to what is said
    (c) carefully for word stress and intonation
    (d) to judge the speaker’s mood and tone
  15. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation of learner is
    (a) continuous tests and assignments
    (b) conducting continuous tests
    (c) periodic assessment of learning
    (d) periodic assessment of learning
    Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos.16 to 23) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
    Peoples’ faces light up when I say I taste chocolate for a living, but it is not always delicious. I also have to taste defective chocolate, which have a small room, not allowed to talk and parked in front of a computer to log information. Sometimes the room has red lighting to disguise the appearance of the chocolate, so I can evaluate it only by taste, not appearance. I can sample as many as 30 chocolates per day, so as to keep my plate active, I spit the sweets back out. That’s another not-so-glamorous part of the job. Between samples, I wait half an unsalted cracker biscuit and I chew plain warm water, as carbonated water and ice numb one’s senses.
    First I smell the chocolate and logo its aroma. I also listen: if chocolate doesn’t sound crisp when broken, it may be a sign it’s old or was improperly stored. Then I place one inch bit in my mouth and leave it there for few seconds. I press it against my plate and let it melt, recording the four basic tastes-sweet, sour, bitter and salty, Then I blow out short puffs of air through my nose. Certain sense receptors in the back of our head are stimulated by oxygen. They allow us to smell food when we chew. Exhaling sharply can bring out aromas like berry, mushroom, tea, citrus, beeswax, toast, cinnamon and savory spaces that are sometimes too suitable for the nose to catch. I log these attributes, too along with the texture.
  16. People get surprised when the narrator tells them that he
    (a) is a chocolate taster
    (b) has to work under red light
    (c) has to eat bitter chocolate
    (d) has to work in a small room
  17. There is no glamour in his job as
    (a) has to blow out short puffs
    (b) he keeps on spitting out chocolate
    (c) his place of work is narrow
    (d) he never ate burnt chocolate
  18. The narrator cannot eat and enjoy the chocolate
    (a) as it has not been stored properly
    (b) as it his palate active
    (c) to keep his palate active
    (d) as it has a burnt flavor
  19. The process of chocolate tasting runs in the order of______ and again smelling.
    (a) breaking, smelling, listening, melting
    (b) breaking, listening, smelling, melting
    (c) smelling. Breaking, listening, melting
    (d) melting, listening, breaking, smelling
  20. “Leave it there.”
    When the above sentence is changed into passive voice, it becomes
    (a) Let it was left there
    (b) It is left there
    (c) It was left there
    (d) Let it be left there
  21. “People, faces light up………”
    The word ‘light’ here is a/an
    (a) adverb
    (b) noun
    (c) verb
    (d) adjective
  22. The word ‘parked’ (Para 1) means
    (a) ran
    (b) managed
    (c) operated
    (d) seated
  23. The word ‘log’ (Para 2) means
    (a) taste
    (b) record
    (c) cut
    (d) enjoy
    Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos.24 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
    The Kittur Fort
    One can see today only dilapidated walls and ruins of the great fort which was once known for its strength. The most important landmark as one goes towards the fort is the ‘Bahadurragad’. Situated to the southwest of the fort and outside of it, on a natural hillock, the highest in the plain, the ‘Buhadurgad’, which was the watchtower, provides a most panoramic and commanding view of the sparsely wooded surrounding region of green grassland, fading, as if gradually, into soft contoured hills in the west and the horizons on the other sides. To the north of the tower is ‘Ranagattikere’ where Rani Chennamma fought her last stubborn fight against determination.
    The actual fort, circular in plan, consisted of double walls, separated by moats on the outer sides, with semi-conductor bastions on exterior of the outer wall. It had originally the main gateway on the east, approached by the causeway across the outer moat known as ane Honda which was used for bathing the elephants.
    The entrances through the walls are deliberately not aligned, evidently in the interests of security. After passing by the winding path through the walls, one is led to the front side of the imposing main entrance of the palace near the northern arc of inner fort wall.
    To the south of the palace, inside the fort, are the ruins of horse-stables and foundations of residential buildings, probably meant for the important officials of the palace. To the southwest is the heavily built watchtower relieved by a series of parallel buttresses at regular intervals.
  24. Which one of the following statements is true?
    (a) Rani Chennamma ruled Kittur from here.
    (b) Baharurgad is situated inside the Kittur Fort.
    (c) From it, one can enjoy a view of the hills in the east.
    (d) It was as a watchtower.
  25. Rani Chennamma fought against the British
    (a) in Bahadurgad Fort
    (b) in the wooded grasslands
    (c) in the contoured hills
    (d) at Ranagattikere
  26. From Bahadurgad, one could easily get
    (a) to see a natural hillock
    (b) a commanding view of a dense forest
    (c) to see tall rugged hills in the west
    (d) a look at green grassland
  27. Unaligned gates in the walls
    (a) make the walls look imposing
    (b) make the entry easy
    (c) make the fort secure
    (d) make the fort insecure
  28. “…. And commanding view of ……” ‘commanding’ in the above phrase is a/an
    (a) adverb
    (b) noun
    (c) verb
    (d) adjective
  29. “…. as one goes towards…..” ‘one’ in the above clause is a/an
    (a) adverb
    (b) noun
    (c) verb
    (d) pronoun
  30. The word ‘landmark’ means the same as
    (a) plain
    (b) marker
    (c) adventure
    (d) hill

भाग – V
हिन्दी
निर्देश : नीच दिए गये (प्रश्न सं० 31 – 45) के सही/सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए |

  1. भाषा – शिक्षण पर हुए शोध बताते है कि द्वितीय/विदेशी भाषा में दक्षता सीखने वाले की _____ और _____ पर ही ज्यादा निर्भर करती है |
    (a) अभिव्रत्ति; अभिप्रेरणा
    (b) अभिव्रत्ति; परिवार
    (c) संस्कृति; वर्ग
    (d) अभिप्रेरणा; उपलब्धि
  2. यदि भाषा को विज्ञान के द्रष्टिकोण से देखे , तो भाषाओं के बीच मूलतः
    (a) गहरा सम्बन्ध होता है
    (b) बहुत अंतर होता है
    (c) कोई अंतर नहीं होता
    (d) थोढ़ा अन्तर होता है
  3. एक तरफ भाषा हमारी ____ को व्यवस्थित करती है, तो दूसरी तरफ यह हमे _____ भी करती है और हमे ज्ञान और कल्पना की अनोखी दुनिया में ले जाती है |
    (a) जानकारी; मुक्त
    (b) विचर-प्रक्रिया; मुक्त
    (c) संस्कृत; नियंत्रित
    (d) विचर-प्रक्रिया; सुसंस्कृत
  4. ‘अंतःवाक ‘ की संकल्पना का सम्बन्ध किससे है ?
    (a) स्किनर
    (b) चाम्सकी
    (c) वाईगोत्सकी
    (d) पियाजे
  5. पियाजे के अनुसार, भाषा अन्य संज्ञानात्मक तंत्रों की भांति परिवेश के साथ _____ के माध्यम से ही विकसित होती है |
    (a) अलगाव
    (b) टकराव
    (c) अंतःक्रिया
    (d) सामंजस्य
  6. व्याकरण-शिक्षण की वह पद्धति अपेक्षाकृत अधिक उचित है, जिसमे
    (a) बच्चे नियमो से उदाहरनो की और जाते है
    (b) बच्चे सूत्रों का प्रयोग करते है
    (c) बच्चे नियमो को कंठस्थ कर लेते है
    (d) बच्चे उदाहरनो से नियमो की और जाते है
  7. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर की भाषा सीखने-सिखाने की प्रक्रिया में _____ की उपेक्षा बिलकुल नहीं की जा सकती |
    (a) बच्चो की सामाजिक श्रेणी
    (b) बच्चों के पाठ्य-पुस्कीय ज्ञान
    (c) शिक्षक के शास्त्रीय ज्ञान
    (d) बच्चों की भाषिक प्रष्ठभूमि
  8. मोना अकसर लिखते समय शब्दों के अक्षरों को छोढ़ देती है, जैसे – ‘पढ़ती’ को ‘पती’, ‘अभिनव’ को ‘अनव’ लिखना | इसका सबसे अधिक कारण हो सकता है कि
    (a) उसके विचरों में स्पष्टता न हो
    (b) उसे मात्राओ का ज्ञान न हो
    (c) उसे विचार और लिखने की गति में सामंजस्य न हो
  9. रूपा बढ़े समूह के सामने अपनी बात कहते समय अटकती है | एक शिक्षक के रूप में आप उसकी सहायता कैसे करेगे ?
    (a) उसमें बलपूर्वक आत्मविश्वास उत्पन्न करेंगे
    (b) उसे हमेशा बढ़े समूह के सामने बोलने के कहेंगे
    (c) प्रारंभ में छोटे-छोटे समूहों में बात करने के भरपूर अवसर देंगे
    (d) उसे बार-बार समझाएंगे कि बढ़े समूह में किस तरह बोला जाता है
  10. अपनी कक्षा में समावेशी माहौल का निर्माण करने के लिए आप किस बात को सबसे अधिक महत्वपूर्ण मानते है?
    (a) सभी बच्चों से सभी भाषिक प्रकार्यों को समान रूप से सम्पादित करवाना
    (b) विभिन्न प्रकार के द्रश्य- श्रव्य संसाधनों का आवश्यकतानुसार उचित प्रयोग
    (c) विभिन्न प्रकार के द्रश्य- श्रव्य संसाधनों का सदैव अनिवार्य प्रयोग
    (d) स्वयं के बोलने की गति को भुत धीमी रखना
  11. आठवीं कक्षा के बच्चों के भाषा आकलन के लिए आप किसे सबसे कम महत्वपूर्ण मानते है?
    (a) लिखित परीक्षा का आयोजन करना
    (b) किसी विषय पर अपने विचार प्रकट करना
    (c) किसी कहानी को नाटक में रूपांतरित करना
    (d) साहित्यिक समारोहों का आयोजन करना
  12. सतीश सातवीं कक्षा का विद्यार्थी है | वह निबंध लिखते समय कुंजी या गाइड का प्रयोग करता है | इसके कारणों में सबसे कमजोर कारण हो सकता है
    (a) स्रजनात्मक लेखन की शिक्षण पद्धति उचित नहीं है
    (b) उसकी मौखिक भाषा बेहद कमजोर अहि
    (c) उसकी लिखित भाषा पर पकढ़ नहीं है
    (d) उसमे विचर केन्र का सामर्थ्य नहीं है
  13. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर हिंदी शिक्षण का एक सर्वाधिक महत्वपूर्ण उद्देश्य है
    (a) बच्चों को पाठो के अंत दिए गये उदाहरानो का अभ्यास करवाना
    (b) बच्चों में समझ के साथ पढ़ने और लिखने की क्षमता का विकास करना
    (c) बच्चों में कहानियों को शब्दतः दोहराने की क्षमता का विकास करना
    (d) बच्चों को व्याकरण के नियमो को कंठस्थ करवाना
  14. भाषा सीखने में सबसे बढ़ा बाधक तत्व हो सकता है
    (a) भाषा में आकलन
    (b) पाठ्य – पुस्तक
    (c) भाषायी प्रयोग के अवसर
    (d) इकाई परीक्षण
  15. पोर्टफोलियो
    (a) बच्चों के अविभावको को पूर्ण जानकारी देता है
    (b) बच्चों के आकलन का सबसे सरल तरीका है
    (c) बच्चों की क्रमिक प्रगति की जानकारी देता है
    (d) बच्चों की हर प्रकार की प्रगति का पूर्ण लेखा-जोखा है
    निर्देश : नीचे गधांश को पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों (प्रश्न सं० 46 – 53) के सही/सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए |
    चेन्नई में आई बाढ़ अब उतार पर है | इस त्रासदी से निपटने में इस शहर ने जिस साहस का परिचय दिया, जिस तरह से सोशल मीडिया ने एक बार फिर बचाव के काम में अहम किरदार निभाया, बल्कि कुछ मामलो में तो जान बचाने में भी उसकी भूमिका रही, इसे देखते हुए उसकी जितनी तारीफ की जाय, वह कम है | इन तमाम अच्छी बातो के बावजूद हम वास्तविकता को भी नहीं झुठलाया जा सकता कि इस त्रासदी से बचा जा सकता था | चेन्नई में आई बाढ़ भी असली बजह थी अडयार नदी बेसिन का नये हवाई अड्डे के लिए अतिक्रमण | ठीक उसी तरह, जैसे दूसरे नदी विस्तारो का आवासीय निर्माण के लिए इस्तेमाल क्र लिया गया है | नदी ने कुदरती रास्तो को अवरूध्द किये जाने से इसका जल आसपास इलाको में उमढ गया | जब तक प्रकृति अपना क्रोध नहीं दिखाती, हमारे योजनाकार हर जोखिम को नजरंदाज करते रहते है और उस चीज की तलाश में रहते है, जिसे वे ले सकते है | हमने इसी तरह का विध्वंसक सैलाव मुंबई में भी देखा | कुछ समय पहले मुंबई में भी देखा | कुछ समय पहले श्रीनगर में भी ऐसी बर्बादी देखि | हर जगह मुख्य वजह मिली – अनियोजित शहरीकरण और बुनियादी नियमो की अनदेखी | फिर भी हर बार त्रासदी की गम्भीरता लोगो की यादों में धुधली पढ़ जाती है | चेन्नई की तरह दिल्ली में भी ऐसे सैलाव की सम्भावना है | इसलिए हमे यमुना नदी के बेसिन से छेढ़छाढ़ करने की ‘बुद्धिमानी’ से बचना होगा |
  16. ‘बाढ़ अब उतार पर है’ का अर्थ है
    (a) बाढ़ नियंत्रित है
    (b) बाढ़ अब घट रही है
    (c) बाढ़ उतर गई है
    (d) बाढ़ फैल रही है
  17. चेन्नई की बाढ़ का कारण था
    (a) हवाई अड्डे के लिए नदी मार्ग से छेढ़छाढ़
    (b) सरकार की लापरवाही बढ़ना
    (c) आवासीय निर्माण करना
    (d) मौसम विभाग की शिथिलता होना
  18. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय दोनों है?
    (a) बुद्धिमानी
    (b) बचाव
    (c) आवासीय
    (d) बरबादी
  19. गधांश में ‘बाढ़’ के लिए एक समानार्थी का प्रयोग हुआ है, वह है
    (a) त्रासदी
    (b) अवरुद्ध
    (c) जोखिम
    (d) सैलाव
  20. हमारे योजनाकार तब तक लापरवाह रहते है, जब तक
    (a) सरकार दबाव न बनाये
    (b) समस्या हल न हो जाय
    (c) प्रकृति अपना क्रोध न दिखाए
    (d) जनता जागरूक न हो जाय
  21. मुंबई, श्रीनगर जैसे स्थानों में बाढ़ से हुई बरबादी के पीछे कारण था
    (a) त्रासदी की गम्भीरता
    (b) शहरों का विस्तार
    (c) प्रकृति का असहयोग
    (d) अनियोजित शहरीकरण
  22. ‘गंभीरता’ शब्द व्याकरण की द्रष्टि से है
    (a) क्रिया
    (b) संज्ञा
    (c) सर्वनाम
    (d) विशेषण
  23. “अपनी ‘बुद्धिमानी’ का परिचय देते हुए” — यहाँ ‘बुद्धिमानी’ से लेखक का मन्तव्य है
    (a) अक्लमंदी
    (b) मूर्खता
    (c) समझदारी
    (d) विद्वता
    निर्देश : नीचे गधांश को पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों (प्रश्न सं० 54 – 60) के सही/सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए |
    आपको किसी महत्वपूर्ण परीक्षा की तैयारी में क्या कठिनाई हो रही है? क्या ऐसा करने में समय की कमी महसूस हो रही है? अगर आपका जबाव ‘हां’ है, तो आपको समय प्रबंधन सीखने जरूरत है | समय प्रबंधन किसी भी परीक्षा की तैयारी का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण पहलू है | भुत से परिछार्थी ऐसे है, जो परिछाओ की तैयारी देर से और बेतरतीब ढंग से शुरू करते है, जिससे उन्हें समयाभाव सबसे बढ़े शत्रु की दिखने लगता है | बिना समय प्रबंधन के उस अनुपात में फायदा नहीं हो पाता, जिस अनुपात में आप मेहनत करते है | वास्तव में समय की गति को या उसके स्वभाव को मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि न तो इसे धीमा किया जा सकता और न ही रोका जा सकता है | आप स्वयं को मैनेज करते हुए सिर्फ इसका सही प्रयोग कर सकते है |
    सबसे पहले आप यह निर्धारित करे की आपका वर्तमान समय कैसे व्यतीत हो रहा है | आप पिछले एक सप्ताह के अपने कार्य कलाप को एक पेपर पर लिखकर देखिये की आपने टाइम टेबल का कितना और कैसे अनुसरण किया है | पूरे सप्ताह में कितने घंटे सेल्फ-स्टडी की है और आपका निर्धारित सिलेबस का कितना हिस्सा नहीं हो पाया है| एक बार पूरा विश्लेशण करने के बाद आप स्वयं को समय के हिसाब से बदलना शुरू कर सकते है | समय बचाने के लिए किसी विशेशज्ञ की टिप्स काम आ सकती है परन्तु सबसे अधिक प्रभाव आपके निश्चय, समर्पण और समय नियोजन का रहेगा | समय प्रबंधन आपके आत्मविश्वास को बढ़ाएगा और यह सफलता की दिशा में निर्णायक होगा |
  24. समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत कब है ?
    (a) जब अवसर खो देने की सम्भावना हो
    (b) जब कोई परीक्षा देनी हो
    (c) जब अच्छा व्यवसाय चुनना हो
    (d) जब कुछ करने के लिए समय कम पढ़े
  25. समय के बारे में सच है कि उसे
    (a) रोका जा सकता है
    (b) धीमा किया जा सकता है
    (c) लौटाया जा सकता है
    (d) मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता है
  26. समय का अभाव उन्हें शत्रु जैसा लगता है ,जो
    (a) परीक्षाओ को महत्वपूर्ण नहीं मानते
    (b) परीक्षाओ की तैयारी गम्भीरता से करते है
    (c) परीक्षाओ की तैयारी बेहतरीन ढंग से करते है
    (d) परीक्षाओ की तैयारी करना ही नहीं चाहते
  27. ‘सेल्फ-स्टडी’ शब्द है
    (a) देशज
    (b) तत्सम
    (c) तद्भव
    (d) आगत
  28. समय प्रबंधन से बढ़ सकता/सकती है
    (a) द्रढ़ निश्चय
    (b) विशेषग्यता
    (c) आत्मविश्वास
    (d) स्वाभिमान
  29. ‘महत्वपूर्ण’ पद का समास – विग्रह होगा
    (a) महत्व से पूर्ण
    (b) महत्व और पूर्ण
    (c) महत्व में पूर्ण
    (d) महत्व के लिए पूर्ण
  30. ‘टाइम मैनेजमेंट’ के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द है
    (a) समय निर्धारण
    (b) समय नियोजन
    (c) समयाभाव
    (d) समय प्रबंधन

 

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *