Get here CTET Answer Key of 20 September 2015. Center Eligibility Test successfully conducted on the 20 September 2015. A lot of candidates appeared in this exam. Central Eligibility Test conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). CTET Exam was held in two sessions, Paper-1 in Morning Shift and Paper-2 in Evening Shift. Official CTET Answer key will be released soon on official website ctet.nic.in

Candidates will be eager to know their performance in the examination. Solved paper prepared the Tentative & Unofficial Answer Keys along with Question Paper of CTET for an eager candidate. CTET Question paper consists five parts.

  • Child Development & Pedagogy
  • Mathematics & Science
  • EVS/Social Studies/Science
  • English & Hindi (Language-I)
  • English & Hindi (Language-II)

Central Teacher Eligibility Test is to determine the competence of claimant for teaching. CTET Paper is base on the basis of qualification. CTET paper conducted in two shift morning and evening shift. Both Shift paper have consists 150 questions in all Set A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I.

CTET Answer Key 20 September 2015:

Exam Date: 20 September 2015
Exam Board
: Central Board of Secondary Education
Exam Centers: All over the Nation
Exam Name: Common Teacher Eligibility Test
Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice type
Official Answer key: Will be available soon
Unofficial Answer Key: Available
Website: ctet.nic.in
 

PART – I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions: Answer the following question by selecting the most appropriate options.

  1. A teacher’s most important role in an inclusive classroom is:
    (a) to ensure that the teacher gives standard instruction to the class.
    (b) to find out the occupations of parents of children so that the teacher knows what each child’s future occupation would be
    (c) to ensure that every child gets an opportunity to realize her potential.
    (d) to plan for the class so that every child progress at the same pace.
  2. How would you help children in your class to make changes in their concepts?
    (a) By dictating the information to the children and then asking them to memorize it.
    (b) By punishing children if their concepts are wrong.
    (c) By giving factual information.
    (d) By giving children an opportunity to express their own understanding of the concepts.
  3. A certificate is given to children when they read a specific number of books. In the long run this strategy might not work since.
    (a) this might lead to children reading only for getting the certificates
    (b) the library would need to buy a lot of books
    (c) a large number of certificates would have to be given when more children start reading
    (d) reading books would distract children from completing their homework
  4. Role of a teacher in a class is to:
    (a) follow the timetable strictly and stick to the course.
    (b) provide authentic learning situations and facilitate independent thinking in students
    (c) fill the students with her own knowledge and prepare them for examinations
    (d) transmit knowledge in a straight fashion and prepare students for right answers.
  5. Which of the following statements is most appropriate about children making errors?
    (a) To avoid making errors, children need to imitate the teacher
    (b) Children’s error need to be taken seriously and they should be punished severely so that they do not repeat the mistakes.
    (c) Children commit errors since they do not have the capacity to think.
    (d) Children’s error are a window into how they think.
  6. Assessment is an integral part of teaching-learning process because:
    (a) assessment helps the teacher to understand children’s learning and serves as a feedback for her own teaching.
    (b) assessment is the only way to ensure that teachers have taught and students have learnt.
    (c) in today’s time marks are the only important thing in education.
    (d) children need to be marked so that they know where they stand in comparison to their peers.
  7. “The curriculum must enable children to find their voices, nurture their curiosity – to do thing, to ask questions and to pursue investigations, sharing and integrating their experiences with school knowledge –rather than their ability to reproduce textual knowledge.” National Curriculum Framework 2005, p-13.
    Against this backdrop, what should be the primary role of the teacher?
    (a) to given plenty of opportunities to children to share their own understanding and knowledge.
    (b) to discard the experiences of the children and focus on the textbook
    (c) to do the chapters of the textbooks sequentially.
    (d) to ensure that the teacher asks good questions and the children write the answers in their notebooks
  8. To encourage children to put in efforts in their studies teachers need to;
    (a) control the child
    (b) motivate the child
    (c) compare the child with others.
    (d) scold the child
  9. Which one of these statements in the context of emotions, learning and motivation is most appropriate?
    (a) Emotions need to be pushed aside to allow for learning to take place.
    (b) Emotions are inextricably intertwined with motivation and learning.
    (c) Emotions do not play any role in motivating us to learn.
    (d) Learning something new is dependent on how good we are at that.
  10. Multiple Choice Question assess the child’s ability to:
    (a) construct the correct answer
    (b) explain the correct answer
    (c) recognize the correct answer
    (d) recall the correct answer.
  11. Process of socialization does NOT include:
    (a) Acquiring values and beliefs
    (b) Generic transmission
    (c) Learning the customs and norms of culture
    (d) Acquisition of skills
  12. What term/phrase does Piaget use for ‘mental structures which are the building blocks of thinking’?
    (a) Gene
    (b) Maturation blocks
    (c) Schemas
    (d) Zones of development
  13. According to Vygotsky why do children speak to themselves?
    (a) Children use their speech to attract the attention of adults to them.
    (b) Children are very talkative by nature.
    (c) Children are egocentric
    (d) Children use speech to guide their actions
  14. Children with learning disabilities:
    (a) have confusion between letters and alphabets that look alike
    (b) easily recognize and comprehend sigh words
    (c) have retarded mental development
    (d) have low IQ
  15. What is Creativity?
    (a) A form of intelligence that refers to skills that depend on accumulated knowledge and experience.
    (b) A form of intelligence that depends heavily on information processing skills including the speed of processing.
    (c) Ability to identify or prepare original and divergent solution to problems.
    (d) Creativity is best defined as an IQ of above 200.
  16. A lot of children in India, especially girls do household chores before coming to school and after going back from school. What do you think a teacher should do regarding homework in this context?
    (a) The teacher should give homework that connects the learning at school to the children’s lives at home.
    (b) The teacher should ensure that the children wake up early in the morning and stay till late to complete their homework
    (c) Ask the parents of the children to get tuition for completing the homework for their children.
    (d) She should give harsh punishment to the children who do not complete their homework.
  17. In an effective classroom:
    (a) the children look up to the teacher for guidance and support to facilitate their learning.
    (b) the children are always anxious and kept on their toes since the teacher keeps on giving regular tests to assess their ability for recall.
    (c) the children fear the teacher since the teacher uses verbal and physical punishment.
    (d) the children don’t have any regard for the teacher and do as they please
  18. Presenting disconnected chunks of knowledge would:
    (a) help learners organize information on their own.
    (b) make the task of the teacher difficult and that of the learners easy.
    (c) make it difficult for the learners to gain conceptual understanding.
    (d) make recall easier for the learners.
  19. Do children acquire language because they are genetically predisposed to do so or because parents intensively teach them from an early age? This question essentially highlights:
    (a) whether development is a continuous process or discontinuous one?
    (b) the influence of cognition on development of language
    (c) the nurture debate
    (d) the discussion on development as a multi-factor ability
  20. Development of the capacity for abstract scientific thinking is a characteristic of:
    (a) Concrete operations stage
    (b) Formal operational stage
    (c) Sensorimotor stage
    (d) Pre-operational stage
  21. A child reasons- ‘You do this for me and I’ll do that for you.’ In which stage of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning would this child fall?
    (a) The ‘good boy-good girl’ orientation
    (b) The social-contract orientation
    (c) The instrumental purpose orientation
    (d) The punishment and obedience orientation
  22. Progressive education:
    (a) is based on the principles of conditioning and reinforcement.
    (b) is centered around textbooks since they are the only valid source of knowledge.
    (c) reaffirms the belief that the teacher has to be firm in her approach and in today’s world children cannot be taught without using punishment.
    (d) lays strong emphasis on problem solving and critical thinking.
  23. Questions encouraging students to voice their individual opinions on issues and reflections while giving reasons for the same, promote:
    (a) Standardized assessment of children
    (b) Analytical and critical thinking
    (c) Convergent thinking
    (d) Recall of information
  24. Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?
    (a) Development is independent of learning.
    (b) Learning and development are synonymous terms
    (c) Learning trails behind development
    (d) Learning and development are inter-related in complex manner.
  25. Which one of these is NOT a principle development?
    (a) Development is modifiable.
    (b) Development is governed and determined by culture alone
    (c) Development is modifiable.
    (d) Development is influence by both heredity and environment.
  26. A key feature of a child-centered classroom is that in which:
    (a) the teacher’s role is to present the knowledge to be learned and to assess the students on standard parameters.
    (b) the students whit the teacher’s guidance are made responsible for constructing their own understanding
    (c) there’s coercive and psychological control of the teacher who determines the learning trajectory and the behavior of the children.
    (d) the teacher lays down uniform ways of behavior for children and given them appropriate rewards when they do the same
  27. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate about intelligence?
    (a) Intelligence can be reliably determined only by administering standardized IQ tests
    (b) Intelligence is fundamentally neurological functioning, for example speed of processing, sensory discrimination etc.
    (c) Intelligence is the ability to do well in school.
    (d) Intelligence is multi-dimensional having several aspects to it.
  28. Gender bias refers to:
    (a) generic differences that exist between boys and girls.
    (b) perception of self as relatively feminine and masculine in characteristics.
    (c) acknowledgement of differences between boys and girls due to their physiology.
    (d) differential treatment of boys and girls based on expectations due to cultural attitudes.
  29. As an upper primary school teacher you have quite a few children who are ‘first generation school goers’ in your classroom. Which one of the following are you most likely to do?
    (a) Provide scaffolding and other kinds of support during classroom activities and for homework.
    (b) Give them homework of memorizing and copying the answers in their notebooks five times.
    (c) Tell the children that they do not have the capability to study further and they should now help their parents at work
    (d) Call the parents and gently ask them to enroll their children for tuition.
  30. Even children of the same age vary greatly in appearance, abilities, greatly I appearance, abilities, temperament, interests, aptitude amongst other things. What is the role of the school in this regard?
    (a) lay down normative standards of assessment for children.
    (b) Ensure that the teacher uses standardized instruction and textbooks.
    (c) Ensure that all children develop in the same manner
    (d) Ensure that each child gets opportunities to develop as per her potential.

 

PART-II
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

Directions: Answer the following question by selecting the most appropriate options.

  1. The internal base of a rectangular box is 15 cm long and 12.5 cm wide and its height is 7.5 cm. The box is filled with cubes each of side 2.5 cm. The number of cubes will be
    (a) 90
    (b) 120
    (c) 45
    (d) 60
  2. The perimeter of a trapezium is 58 cm and sum of its non-parallel sides is 20 cm. If its area is 152 cm2, then the distance between the parallel sides, in cms, is:
    (a) 9.8
    (b) 2
    (c) 6
    (d) 8
  3. The measure of each interior angle of a regular convex polygon is 156o. The number of sides of the polygon is:
    (a) 10
    (b) 8
    (c) 15
    (d) 12
  4. If the number of sides of a regular polygon is ‘n’, then the number of lines of symmetry is equal to:
    (a) 2n
    (b) n
    (c) n/2
    (d) n2
  5. The sides of a triangle are 6.5 cm, 10 cm and x cm, where x is a positive number. What is the smallest possible value of x among the following?
    (a) 3.5
    (b) 4
    (c) 4.5
    (d) 2.8
  6. Chhaya simplified the given rational number -20/-30 =-(5/6)
    This error can be considered as:
    (a) procedural error
    (b) error due to wrong interpretation of problem
    (c) careless error
    (d) conceptual error
  7. ‘Data Handling’ at upper primary stage focuses on:
    (a) data organization only
    (b) techniques of data collection
    (c) data collection, organization and interpretation
    (d) data interpretation only
  8. Which one of the following is not a Problem Solving Strategy in Mathematics?
    (a) Solving backwards
    (b) Rote Learning
    (c) Trial and Error
    (d) Drawing
  9. According to Piaget, when the child is at formal operational stage, it is appropriate to introduce:
    (a) Numbers
    (b) Geometry
    (c) Ratio and Proportion
    (d) Data handling
  10. Read the following problem given in a textbook for class VII:
    “A map is given with a scale of 2 cm=1000 km. What is the actual distance between two places, in kms, if the distance on the map is 2.5 cm?
    This problem is:
    (a) based on higher order thinking skills
    (b) to enhance problem-solving skills
    (c) Interdisciplinary in nature
    (d) Investigatory in nature
  11. Which one of the following is not a Mathematical process?
    (a) Memorization
    (b) Measurement
    (c) Visualization
    (d) Estimation
  12. According to NCF 2005, school Mathematics takes place in a situation where:
    (a) Children are listeners and the teachers is an active narrator
    (b) Children are involved in chorus drill of formulae and pressure of performance in examination.
    (c) Mathematics is part of children’s life experience.
    (d) Children are forced to learn all concepts by daily practice.
  13. In class VI, teacher gave a topic for debate as Formative Assessment (FA) task.
    “Hindu-Arabic numerals are more powerful than Roman Numerals.”
    Objective of this FA activity is to assess:
    (a) Creativity
    (b) Understanding
    (c) Knowledge
    (d) Analysis
  14. In a Mathematics classroom, emphasis is placed on:
    (a) Problem-solving strategies
    (b) mathematical algorithms and processes
    (c) Mathematical content
    (d) mathematical content, process and reasoning
  15. A teacher given the following problem related to ‘discount’ to the students for solving.
    “The Market Prices (M.P.) of a shirt and sweater are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively, and the discounts on the marked prices of shirt and sweater are 20% and 12% respectively. While preparing the bill, the shopkeeper interchanged the discounts on these items by mistake. On getting the bill, Hamida noticed the mistake and paid the actual amount to the Shopkeeper. How much money did Hamida pay to the Shopkeeper?”
    What value does the teacher try to promote through this problem?
    (a) Co-operation
    (b) Sympathy
    (c) Compassion
    (d) Honesty
  16. The difference between the greatest and smallest fraction amongst
    6/7, 8/9, 9/10, 7/8 is
    (a) 1/72
    (b) 2/63
    (c) 3/70
    (d) 1/56
  17. The additive inverse of S, where S=1-2+3-4+5-6+7-8+ ……….+49-50, is
    (a) -25
    (b) 1
    (c) 0
    (d) 25
  18. If a = 3129 x 5128 x 722
    b = 3128 x 5129 x 721
    c = 3127 x 5129 x 723 and
    d = 3127 x 5128 x 724, then
    C.F. of a, b, c and d is:
    (a) 3128 x 5129 x 721
    (b) 3127 x 5128 x 721
    (c) 3127 x 5128 x 722
    (d) 3128 x 5128 x 721
  19. The value of 3Ö-2300 x 3Ö5290 is:
    (a) -270
    (b) 230
    (c) -230
    (d) -529
  20. The value of [(2a)bc / (5b)ac] where a=2, b=3, and c=0, is
    (a) -1
    (b) 2/5
    (c) 1
    (d) 0
  21. The value of
    ((4+44/100)+(404/100)+(444/1000)+(4/10000)) is:
    (a) 12.8844
    (b) 12.8804
    (c) 12.8224
    (d) 12.8944
  22. The smallest value of ‘y’ I the number 9y8071 so that it is divisible by 11 is
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 1
    (d) 0
  23. (14.96 x 1010) – (3.84 x 108) is expressed in standard form as:
    (a) 1492.16 x 108
    (b) 1.49216 x 1011
    (c) 14921.6 x 109
    (d) 14.9216 x 1010
  24. The sum of mean, mode and median of the data
    6, 3, 9, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 1, 3 is
    (a) 12
    (b) 13
    (c) 10
    (d) 11
  25. Natural numbers 4 to 15 are written on different slips (one numbers on one slip), kept in a box and mixed well. Renu picks up one slip from the box without looking into it. What is the probability that this slip bears a prime number?
    (a) 1/3
    (b) 5/12
    (c) 2/5
    (d) 3/11
  26. A sum of money amounts to ₹ 4,818 after 3 years and ₹ 7,227 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum is:
    (a) ₹ 3,122
    (b) ₹ 3,212
    (c) ₹ 2,409
    (d) ₹ 2,409
  27. If the weight of 18 sheets of paper is 50 grams, how many sheets of the same paper will weight 15/4 kg?
    (a) 1386
    (b) 1836
    (c) 1350
    (d) 1314
  28. If ((3x-2)/3) +((2x+3)/2) = x + 7/6, then the value of ((5x-2)/4) is:
    (a) 1/4
    (b) -1/12
    (c) 1/12
    (d) -1/3
  29. If 4x2+12xy-8x+9y2-12y = (ax+by)(ax+by-4). Then the value of a2+b2 is:
    (a) 13
    (b) 25
    (c) 5
    (d) 10
  30. In the product of (5x+2) and (2x2 -3x+5), the sum of the coefficients of x2 and x is:
    (a) 9
    (b) -8
    (c) -9
    (d) 8
  31. Which one of the following is not a conductor of electricity?
    (a) Salt water
    (b) Distilled water
    (c) Vinegar
    (d) Lime Juice
  32. Medium A is optically denser than Medium B. Which one of the following statement is true?
    (a) Speed of light is same in both A and
    (b) Cannot be compared
    (c) Speed of light is more in medium A than in Medium B
    (d) Speed of light is more in medium B than in Medium A
  33. We are not crushed under the weight of atmosphere, because:
    (a) The pressure inside our body is less than atmospheric pressure.
    (b) The pressure inside our body is equal to the atmospheric pressure and cancels the pressure from outside.
    (c) The pressure inside our body is more than atmospheric pressure
    (d) The pressure inside our body is more than the atmospheric pressure and cancels the pressure from outside.
  34. A block of Iron dropped in a vessel of water, sinks to the bottom. This is because:
    (a) the weight of the block is less than the weight of the water displaced by the block.
    (b) the density of water is more than the density of the block
    (c) the vessel Is not deep enough to allow the block to float
    (d) the weight of the water displaced by the block is less than the weight of the block.
  35. Which one of the statement is incorrect?
    (a) Generally the voice of a man is shriller than that of a woman.
    (b) A bird makes a high pitched sound where a lion makes a low-pitched roar
    (c) A drum vibrates with a low frequency, therefore it produces a low pitch sound
    (d) A whistle has a high frequency and therefore it produces a sound of higher pitch.
  36. There are two planets in our solar system which rotates from east to west. These planets are:
    (a) Mercury and Venus
    (b) Uranus and Neptune
    (c) Mercury and Uranus
    (d) Venus and Uranus
  37. The major excretory product in human being is:
    (a) Uric acid
    (b) Ammonium chloride
    (c) Urea
    (d) Ammonia
  38. Which of the following process/ processes destroy / destroys the magnetic properties of a bar magnet?
    Cutting into two pieces B. Heating
    C. Beating D. Sealing
    Options:
    (a) A, B and C
    (b) A and D
    (c) only A
    (d) B and C
  39. An eight-class student makes the statement:
    “Heavy objects sink in water and light objects float”.
    How is the science teacher of the VII class best advised to react?
    (a) Present counter examples and arrange materials of different shapes, sizes and weights for the child to investigate.
    (b) Explain that heavy and light are relative terms
    (c) Accept the statement as it indicates child’s ideas and needs to be respected.
    (d) Explain to the child that it is not the weight but the density of an object that determines whether it is going to sin or float.
  40. Which one among the following situation gives students, the best opportunity of ‘discovery learning’?
    (a) Encouraging students to investigate factors affecting germination through experimentation.
    (b) Instructing students through team teaching on the topic of “components of food”
    (c) Students being first shown the demonstration of germination of seed followed by a detailed explanation.
    (d) Elaborated and detailed session of programmed instruction on the topic of “germination of seed”.
  41. A teacher places a lighted candle on the table in the classroom. He later covers it with a jar.
    The candle stops burning after some time
    B. Air is required for keeping the candle burning
    C. Oxygen is required for keeping the candle burning.
    Of the above three statements:
    (a) All the statements are observations.
    (b) All the statements are inferences.
    (c) Only statement A is an observation.
    (d) Statements A and B are observations
  42. Which one among the following question would be an ‘open ended’ question?
    (a) Why is it easier to roll a barrel than to slide it on a flat surface?
    (b) How do banked curves on roads prevent skidding?
    (c) Why do we slip on a banana peel?
    (d) What would happen if force of friction ceased to exist?
  43. Which one of the following statements is true about the ‘laws’ and ‘theories in science?
    (a) ‘Theories’ are found in biological sciences only and ‘Laws’ are found in physical science only.
    (b) Theories and laws are the same and perform the same function except that laws are briefer form of theories.
    (c) Laws are generalized descriptions of the relationships among observable phenomena and theories are explanations for the observable phenomena.
    (d) Theories become laws when validated.
  44. A science teacher wishes to assess her students on different process skills. Which one among the following tools would be the most appropriate for her purpose?
    (a) Observation schedule
    (b) Paper-pencil test
    (c) Interview
    (d) Questionnaire
  45. Which one of the following should not be an aim of science education at upper primary level?
    (a) Inculcating values
    (b) Presenting facts of science to the learners.
    (c) Relating science education to everyday experience of learners.
    (d) Nurturing the curiosity and cultivation of scientific temper.
  46. How could learning be made more meaningful for students of class VII by the teacher while teaching the topic ‘Save Water’?
    (a) Asking students to interview people in their colony about water consumption and carry out ‘Water Audit’
    (b) Conducting a quiz competition
    (c) Asking students to design posters
    (d) Asking students to write an essay.
  47. A teacher before beginning to teach ‘digestion’ to class VI students provides them with the outline diagram of a human body and asks them to draw all parts, through which they think the food would travel from mouth when they eat.
    What could be the teacher’s purpose of asking this question?
    (a) To investigate students’ prior ideas related to human body and digestion so that future teaching-learning sessions can be accordingly planned.
    (b) To find out which students have read the topic in advance and come prepared for the class and grade them accordingly.
    (c) To evaluate students’ drawing skills as drawing diagrams in an important skill in life sciences.
    (d) To judge students’ understanding of the digestive system and grade them accordingly.
  48. For and effective discussion in class VII on the topic, “Why smoke rises up?”
    a science teacher should:
    discourage question during discussion.
    B. provide a common platform to the learners.
    C. acknowledge learners’ responses to sustain their interest.
    D. summarise and assess the learner’s ideas at the end of discussion.
    (a) D only
    (b) C and D
    (c) A and B
    (d) B, C and D
  49. You have two test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’. Test tube ‘A’ contains paste of turmeric whereas test tube ‘B’ contains aqueous solution of phenolphthalein. On adding a few drops of dilute hydrochloric acid to these test tubes the contents of:
    (a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ both would appear red.
    (b) ‘A’ would appear red while those of ‘B’ would remain colorless
    (c) ‘A’ would remain yellow while those of ‘B’ would appear pink.
    (d) ‘A’ would remain yellow while those of ‘B’ would remain colorless.
  50. Anita prepared a fresh solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube. She dropped a small piece of aluminum foil into it and then brought a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. She hears a pop sound. The pop sound indicated the presence of:
    (a) Hydrogen gas
    (b) Aluminum gas
    (c) Water gas
    (d) Oxygen gas
  51. Which one of the following takes place when water transforms from liquid to gaseous phase?
    (a) Distance between the particles change.
    (b) The color of particles change.
    (c) Size of the particles change
    (d) Structure of the particles change
  52. Which fuel has the highest calorific value from among the following?
    (a) Diesel
    (b) Hydrogen
    (c) Coal
    (d) Petrol
  53. Match the organisms in Column A with their actions in Column B:
    Column –A                                     Column – B
    Lactobacillus                                     a. Nitrogen Fixation
    ii. Protozoan                                      b. AIDS
    iii. Rhizobium                                   c. Malaria
    iv. Virus                                              d. Curd formations
    The correct matching is:
    (a)          a-i              b-ii             c-iii              d-iv
    (b)          a-i             d-ii              c-iii              b-iv
    (c)          d-i             c-ii            a-iii            b-iv
    (d)         d-i              a-ii              b-iii             c-iv
  54. Select the correct statement from among the following.
    (a) Plants with green leaves only carry out photosynthesis.
    (b) Photosynthesis takes place only in leaves
    (c) Irrespective of color, all leaves carry out photosynthesis.
    (d) Plants can carry out photosynthesis even without chlorophyll.
  55. Reema tells her friend that Ladyfinger is a fruit. Her friend Shahana disagrees with her. Which one of the following statements is true?
    (a) Ladyfinger has seeds, thus it is a fruit.
    (b) Ladyfinger has seeds, thus it is a vegetable
    (c) Ladyfinger is a vegetable, hence it cannot be fruits.
    (d) Ladyfinger is eater in cooked form hence it is vegetable
  56. Which hormone in out body helps us to adjust to stress when we are angry, embarrassed or worried?
    (a) Insulin
    (b) Estrogen
    (c) Thyroxine
    (d) Adrenaline
  57. Match the edible parts of Plants in Column –l with those in Column –ll
    Column – l                                         Column –ll
    Root                                                   a. Groundnut
    ii. Stem                                              b. Apple
    iii. Seed                                             c. Sugarcane
    iv. Fruit                                             d. Carrot
    The given choices are:(a)    a-i                   d-ii            c-iii               b-iv
    (b)    c-i                   b-ii            d-iii              a-iv
    (c)    d-i                  c-ii            a-iii           b-iv
    (d)    b-i                   a-ii             d-iii             c-iv
  58. Which one of the following represents a group of human diseases caused by virus?
    (a) Measles, Polio, Typhoid
    (b) Measles, Typhoid, Tuberculosis
    (c) Measles, Chickenpox, Hepatities-A
    (d) Chickenpox, Malaria, Hepatities –A
  59. Which one of the following represents a group of autotrophs?
    (a) Spinach, Mushroom, Tomato, Teast
    (b) Tulsi, Algae, CUscuta (Dodder), Mushroom
    (c) Algae, Spinach, Tomato, Banana
    (d) Algae, Cuscuta (Dodder), Banana, Mango
  60. Human Nutrition includes nutrient requirement, mode of intake of food and its utilization in the body occurring in various steps which are:
    A. Absorption
    B. Egestion
    C. Assimilation
    D. Ingestion
    E. Digestion
    Arrange these steps in sequence as they occur inside the body.
    (a) E, D, C, A, B
    (b) D, A, B, C, E
    (c) A, B, C, D, E
    (d) D, E, A, C, B

 

PART – III
SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions: Answer the following questions by selection the most appropriate options.

  1. The National Curriculum framework (2005) suggests that Social Science must link a child’s life at school with:
    (a) bookish knowledge
    (b) teachers’ expectation
    (c) Life inside the classroom
    (d) Life outside the classroom
  2. Choose the most appropriate option:
    Students at upper primary level can be asked to go for a field visit as part of Social Science projects as that:
    (a) it frees the teacher to do other activities while students are busy
    (b) It fulfills the mandatory requirement of project completion.
    (c) It is participative and fun for students
    (d) It enable comparison of realities with the ideas and concepts.
  3. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching of Geography at the upper primary level?
    (a) Story telling
    (b) Debate
    (c) Discussion
    (d) Field visit
  4. The teaching of social and political life textbooks at the upper primary level focusses on which one of the following approaches?
    (a) Rote learning
    (b) Learning through synthesis of concepts
    (c) Learning through real life situations
    (d) Learning through definitions
  5. To teach the topic, ‘Different types of Markets’, which one of the following projects would be most appropriate?
    (a) Comparing prices at which shopkeepers by and sell products.
    (b) Exhibit products bought from the market in the classroom
    (c) Making collage on markets from newspapers and magazines.
    (d) Visiting a shopping mall for seeing products sold there.
  6. In which one of the following scripts were most of the Ashokan inscriptions written?
    (a) Tamil
    (b) Olchiki
    (c) Devnagari
    (d) Brahmi
  7. Some of the earliest Hindu temples had a hall where people could assemble. This place was known as:
    (a) Gramabhojaka
    (b) Garbhagriha
    (c) Pradakshina Patha
    (d) Mandapa
  8. Vinaya Pitaka is a book related to:
    (a) Thoughts of Zoroaster
    (b) Rules of the Buddhist Sangha
    (c) Sanskrit Grammar
    (d) Preachings of Mahavira
  9. King Harshvardhan’s court, poet, Banabhatta wrote his biography, the ‘Harshacharita’ in:
    (a) Prakrita
    (b) Hindi
    (c) Urdu
    (d) Sanskrit
  10. The earliest ‘Viharas’ for both Jains and Buddhist monks were made of:
    (a) Soil
    (b) Stone
    (c) Wood
    (d) Brick
  11. Among which of the three dynasties was fought the ‘Tripartite Struggle’, the long-drawn-out conflict over Kanauj?
    (a) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chaola
    (b) Pala, Rashtrakuta and Gurjara-Pratihara
    (c) Gurjara-Pratihara, Pala and Chola
    (d) Rashtrakuta, Chola and Pala
  12. Khanqahs in Sufism refer to:
    (a) places where Sufi Masters held their assemblies
    (b) a special kind of song
    (c) changing of a name
    (d) discussion of parables
  13. Which one of the following statements is correct about Chola temples?
    (a) Chola temples were the hub of economic, social and cultural life.
    (b) The making of iron images was the most distinctive feature of Chola temple
    (c) Chola temples often became the nuclei of rural settlement only
    (d) Chola temples were endowed with land by common people
  14. Which one of the following statements is corrent about Tawarikah written for the Sultans of Delhi Sultanate?
    (a) The authors of Tawarikh advised rulers on the need for good governance and just rule
    (b) Tawarikha were not written by the authors to get rich rewards from the Sultans.
    (c) These were written in Urdu, the language of administration of the Delhi Sultanate.
    (d) Tawarikh were written by those who hardly ever resided in cities.
  15. Who among the following reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education in the nineteenth century?
    (a) Rukeya Sakhawat Hussain
    (b) Mumtaz Ali
    (c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
    (d) Ziyauddin Barani
  16. Choose an appropriate reason for providing students an open book exercise in classroom
    (a) Evaluation of unprepared students.
    (b) Encouraging use of textual language
    (c) Memorising details of a lesson
    (d) Reading a text with specific questions.
  17. Study of Social Science subjects is vital as it enables children to
    (a) learn details about democracy.
    (b) understand society and its environment
    (c) evaluate events from the past
    (d) conserve natural resources
  18. What is the most important reasons for the use of story-boards in Social Science Teaching?
    (a) providing simplistic information
    (b) Encouraging discussion on the given narrative
    (c) Narrating incidents
    (d) Producing attractive textbooks
  19. Which one of the following activities is most appropriate for developing an understanding of the Indian Parliament’s role and functions?
    (a) Holding a youth Parliament.
    (b) Reading from the text
    (c) Flow diagram of functions and responsibilities
    (d) Discussion on newspaper report on Parliament disruption
  20. A teacher suggests that students make a table recording the number of buckets of water used by a student of buckets of water used by a students in a week. After this activity, she initiates a discussion on water usage and conservation. Which method of learning is the teacher encouraging in the class?
    (a) Deductive Method
    (b) Case-study method
    (c) Problem solving method
    (d) Enquiry method
  21. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice:
    To organize knowledge and ideas conceptual resources include timelines, summaries, ______ and ________.
    (a) Teacher modelling and bar graphs.
    (b) memory cues and review questions.
    (c) information maps and concepts maps
    (d) exploratory software and question bank.
  22. Activity based question make Social Science lessons:
    (a) joyful
    (b) debatable
    (c) lengthy
    (d) comprehensive
  23. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for developing an understanding of social problems?
    (a) Film screening
    (b) Photo essay
    (c) Role-play
    (d) Case-study
  24. A teacher wants her students to know about government schemes through primary sources. Which one of the following schemes in inappropriate?
    (a) A survey of schemes in the students’ neighborhood
    (b) A report on expenditure incurred, on various schemes in the students’ neighborhood.
    (c) A review of a book on government schemes
    (d) An interview with a Block Development Officer
  25. Choose an appropriate and meaningful written assignment in Social Science from the following:
    (a) Searching for an exact answer from the text book
    (b) The previous year’s assignments.
    (c) An original assignment that tests concepts
    (d) A summary of the chapter
  26. To prevent cynicism among students about democratic institution, which of the two given option would be most appropriate?
    Emphasise ideal functioning and principles
    B. Indicate impossibility of changing institutions
    C. Emphasise that social inequality is inevitable.
    D. Indicate the role of informed public.
    (a) Both C and D
    (b) Both C and B
    (c) Both A and B
    (d) Both A and D
  27. Choose the best method from among the following to encourage students to talk about gender roles in a Social Science class at the upper primary level.
    (a) Visit to an exhibition
    (b) Internet search by students
    (c) Guided discussion on experiences
    (d) Lecture by an expert
  28. Portfolio is an important tools of continuous and comprehensive evaluation because
    (a) It indicates skills developed in the students
    (b) It is compulsory
    (c) It is easy to implement.
    (d) It provides minimal information.
  29. Which type of learning source are you encouraging your students to use, when you show them a historical monuments?
    (a) Graphic resource
    (b) Folk resource
    (c) Primary source
    (d) Textual source
  30. “Image that you have come across two old newspapers reporting on the Battle of Shrirangapattanam and the death of Tipu Sultan. One is a British paper and the other is from Mysore. Write the headline for each of two newspapers.”
    What is the reason for including this activity in the history textbook of class VIII?
    (a) Create a record of annexation by the British
    (b) Communicate British policies to the masses.
    (c) Develop writing skills in students.
    (d) Develop the concept of diversity of views in students.
  31. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about democracy?
    (a) In a democracy a Ruler has absolute powers to rule the country
    (b) In a democracy people can raise question about the decisions.
    (c) In a democracy the country’s citizens are allowed to elect whomever they want.
    (d) In a democracy citizens enjoy certain freedoms.
  32. Campaigns have led to new laws for the protection of women. In 2006, a law was framed to protect women from:
    (a) Child abuse
    (b) Unequal wages
    (c) Domestic violence
    (d) Sexual harassment
  33. Which one of the following statements about media is incorrect?
    (a) An important functions of mass media is to communicate information to the people.
    (b) There is regular interference on the part of the government in the functioning of media
    (c) Money is earned through advertisements.
    (d) The technology that mass media uses keeps on changing.
  34. The cost to advertise on a news channel depends on:
    (a) the big business houses
    (b) the corporate sector
    (c) the popularity of the channel
    (d) the demand of the viewrs
  35. Consider the following two statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and choose the correct answer:
    A: It is a mechanism to seek necessary information about the functioning of the government
    B: It is a mechanism that allows any individual or organization to file petition to secure justice in the High Court or Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are violated.
    (a) A is false and B is true
    (b) Both A and B are false
    (c) A is true and B is false
    (d) Both A and B are true
  36. Consider the following two statements A and B about the ‘Question Hour Session’ of the Parliament and Choose the correct answer:
    A: The members of Parliament seek information about the working of the government.
    B: It is a mechanism through which the executive controls the legislature.
    (a) A is false and B is true
    (b) Both A and B are false
    (c) A is true and B is false
    (d) Both A and B are true
  37. Consider the following two statements A and B on Judicial Review and choose the correct answer:
    A: The Judiciary can strike down particular laws passed by the Parliament if there is a violation of the basis structure of the Constitution.
    B: A bill cannot become a law unless it is passed by the Judiciary.
    (a) A is false and B is true
    (b) Both A and B are false
    (c) A is true and B is false
    (d) Both A and B are true
  38. According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statements is incorrect about Indian Secular State?
    (a) The State allows government institution to display and promote values specific to a particular religion
    (b)The State is not strictly separate from religion but it does maintain principled distance from religion .
    (c) Indian State is not ruled by any specific religious group.
    (d) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor takes away religious freedom of individuals.
  39. The Indian State has:
    (a) Presidential form of government
    (b) Democratic form of government
    (c) Communist form of government
    (d) Capitalist form of government
  40. Who among the following founded ‘Satyashodhak Samaj’ to propagate caste equality?
    (a) Haridas
    (b) Jyotirao Phule
    (c) Ghasidas
    (d) Narayan Guru
  41. Who among the following was hanged to death for attacking his officers in Barrackpore, on 29th March, 1857?
    (a) Sukhdev
    (b) Mangal Pandey
    (c) Bhagat Singh
    (d) Raj Guru
  42. Which one of the following statements about the British policy of ‘paramountcy’ is correct?
    (a) It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental learning.
    (b) It declared that no other trading group in England could compete with Each India Company
    (c) It declared that if the India ruler died without a male heir, his kingdom would be confiscated.
    (d) It claimed that the authority of the company was supreme, hence its power was greater than that of the India states
  43. Which of the following groups of planets has rings around it/
    (a) Saturn, Neptune, Mars
    (b) Saturn, Venus, Mars
    (c) Saturn, Venus, Neptune
    (d) Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus
  44. Why is the earth described as a ‘Geoid’? Chose the correct answer from the following:
    (a) Two-thirds of earth’s surface are covered with water.
    (b) Favorable conditions are available on earth to support life.
    (c) earth is slightly flattened at the poles
    (d) Earth is neither too hot nor too cold.
  45. From the Earth, only one side of the moon is visible because it:
    (a) only moves around the earth, but does not spin
    (b) does not move around the earth, but only spins
    (c) takes more time in moving around the earth than the time to complete one spin
    (d) takes exactly the same time in moving around the earth as the time to complete one spin
  46. The Ural Mountains separate:
    (a) Africa and Europe
    (b) North America and South America
    (c) Africa and Asia
    (d) Asia and Europe
  47. The place in the crust where the earthquake waves start is called:
    (a) Epicenter
    (b) Crater
    (c) Centre
    (d) Focus
  48. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is most ideal for flying aeroplanes?
    (a) Mesosphere
    (b) Thermosphere
    (c) Troposphere
    (d) Stratosphere
  49. Which one of the following is the most important factor that influences the distribution of temperature on the earth?
    (a) Terrestrial radiation
    (b) Distance from Sea
    (c) Insolation
    (d) Solar radiation
  50. Which one of the following statements about the Amazon Basin is correct?
    (a) The Amazon river forms Delta covered with Mangrove forests.
    (b) The Amazon river basin drains portions from Brazil, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina
    (c)The Amazon basin falls in the equatorial region.
    (d) The Amazon river flows through the equatorial region in the western direction.
  51. Which one of the following is the highest roadways of India in the world?
    (a) Shillong-Silcher
    (c) Itanagar-Pasighat
    (b) Udhampur – Srinagar
    (d) Manali –Leh
  52. Which one of the following techniques is NOT a mitigation mechanism to control landslides?
    (a) Decreasing vegetation cover to arrest landslides.
    (b) Ensuring surface drainage control works to restrict the movement of landslides.
    (c) Hazard mapping to identify areas prone to landslides.
    (d) Construction of retention walls to stop land slippage.
  53. Products of which one of the following are known as ‘Black Gold’?
    (a) Petroleum
    (b) Copper
    (c) Coal
    (d) Gold
  54. Which one of the following is NOT a nuclear power station of India?
    (a) Narora
    (b) Pokhran
    (c) Kalpakkam
    (d) Tarapur
  55. Sifting agriculture is known as Milpa in:
    (a) Mexico
    (b) Brazil
    (c) India
    (d) Malaysia
  56. Which of the following industries comes under public sector?
    (a) Maruti Udyog Limited
    (b) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited
    (c) Hindustan Aeronautic Limited
    (d) Sudha Dairy
  57. Which one of the following Statements Gram Sabha is correct?
    (a) The developmental plans of all the Gram Panchayats are reviewed in the Gram Sabha
    (b) The Gram Sabha regulated the money distribution among all Gram Panchayats.
    (c) It is the meeting place of the Sarpanchs of all the villages in a district.
    (d) The Secretary of the Gram Saba is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of proceedings.
  58. Consider the following two statements A and B people’s participation in democracy and choose the correct answer:
    A: Organising social movements is a way to challenge the government and functioning in the democracy.
    B: Democracy allows people to participate but all sections of people are not able to do so.
    (a) A is false and B is true
    (b) Both A and B are false
    (c) A is true and B is false
    (d) Both A and B are true
  59. Which one of the following is the Tibetan National epic?
    (a) Sidha saga
    (b) Nirvana saga
    (c) Buddha saga
    (d) Kesar saga
  60. Consider the following two statements about the functions performed by ‘Patwari’ and choose the correct answer from the following:
    A: Patwari maintains and updates land records of a village or a group of villages.
    Patwari is responsible for providing information to the government about the crops grown in the area under her/his jurisdicaiton
    (a) A is false and B is true
    (b) Both A and B are false
    (c) A is true and B is false
    (d) Both A and B are true

 

PART-IV
LANGUAGE-I
ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the question that follow (Q. Nos. 91-99) by selecting the most appropriate options:
One of the unhealthiest emotions is anger. It destroys out ability to think clearly, properly and in totality. Anger also has adverse impact on health. If you ask a selection of people what triggers their anger, you would get a wide range of answers. However, whatever the cause, even a single word spoken in anger can leave a lasting impression on a person’s heart and has the ability to ruin sweetness of any relationship.
A sage once said, “How can these be peace on earth if the hearts of men are like volcanoes?” We can live in harmony with others only when we overcome anger and make room for peace. So how can we set about creating that sense of peace within ourselves? It starts with the realization that we do have the choice to think and feel the way we want to. If we look at what it is that makes us angry, we might discover there is nothing that has the power to make us feel this way. We can only allow something a trigger our anger – the anger is a way in which we respond to an event or person. But because we are so used to reacting on impulse, we forget to choose how we want to feel, and end up reacting inappropriately, leaving ourselves with angry feelings.
Mediation helps us create personal space within ourselves so that we have the chance to look, weigh the situation, and respond accordingly, remaining in state of self-control. When we are angry, we have no self-control. At that moment, we are in a state on internal chaos, and anger can be a very destructive force.
Stability that comes from practice of meditation can create a firm foundation, a king of positive stubbornness. Others can say whatever they want, and it may also be true but we don’t lose our peace or happiness on account of that. This is to respect what is eternal within each of us.
We give ourselves the opportunity to maintain our won peace of mind, because let’s face it, no one’s going to turn up at our door with a box full of peace and say, “Here, I think you could do with some of this today!” There is a method which could be described a sublimation, or the changing, or the changing or form. With daily practice and application of spiritual principles in our practical life, experience of inner peace can come naturally.

  1. The synonym for the word, ‘adverse’ is:
    (a) unfavorable
    (b) similar
    (c) angry
    (d) successful
  2. Which part of speech is the underlined word?
    ……………………. Can leave a lasting impression on a ……….
    (a) verb
    (b) Adjective
    (c) Noun
    (d) Pronoun
  3. Meditation helps us create personal space.
    Voice in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
    (a) We have been helped to create personal space
    (b) Personal space is helped by meditation
    (c) We are helped by meditation to create personal space
    (d) Personal space has been created by meditation
  4. What is anger?
    (a) It is release of our pent up emotions.
    (b) It is an effort to avenge ourselves.
    (c) It is loss of control over our temper
    (d) It is our reaction to an event or person
  5. Getting angry ______
    (a) makes us feel ashamed of ourselves
    (b) affects our digestive system
    (c) affects the clarity of our mind
    (d) gives us a feeling of superiority
  6. How can we get peace of mind?
    (a) By enjoying good health
    (b) By overcoming anger
    (c) Through prolonged medication
    (d) By accepting life as it comes
  7. To overcome anger, meditation helps us by _______.
    (a) remaining in a state of self-control
    (b) offering us a wide range of answer
    (c) removing the trigger
    (d) giving us the choice to think
  8. Why should we not get angry with a friend?
    (a) It ruins our relationship.
    (b) It damages our intellectual ability
    (c) It may give us a heart attack
    (d) It affects over health
  9. The antonym for the word, ‘triggers’ is:
    (a) deviates
    (b) controls
    (c) excites
    (d) prolongs

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the question that follow (Q. Nos. 1005-105) by selecting the most appropriate option:
I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky.
And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by,
And the wheel’s kick and the wind’s song and the white sail’s shaking,
And a gray mist on the sea’s face and a gray dawn breaking.
I must go down to the seas again, for the call of running tide.
Is a wild call and a clear call that may not be denied
And all I ask is windy day with the white clouds flying,
And the flung spray all the blown spume, and the sea-gulls crying.
I must go down to the seas again to the vagrant gypsy life
To all gull’s way and the whale’s way where the wind’s like a whetted knife;
And all I ask is a merry yarn from a laughing fellow-rover,
And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over

  1. What does the poet need to steer the ship/
    (a) Wheel, star and wind
    (b) Wheel, wind and sail
    (c) Star, sail and wind
    (d) Wheel, sail and star
  2. Which figure of speech is used in ‘where the wind is like a whetted knife’?
    (a) Personification
    (b) Transferred Epithet
    (c) Metaphor
    (d) Simile
  3. The phrase ‘merry yarn’ in the poem is an example of:
    (a) Assonance
    (b) Simile
    (c) Transferred Epithet
    (d) Metaphor
  4. Invitation of the running tide can’t be denied because:
    (a) It can turn violent
    (b) It is made very lovingly
    (c) It is wild and clear
    (d) It is made on a windy day.
  5. The poet likes a windy day because:
    (a) sea-gulls enjoy it among the clouds.
    (c) it brings drops of rain.
    (b) it helps the ship sail smoothly
    (d) the sky gets overcast with white clouds.
  6. What does the poet want to listen to?
    (a) A sad song of the wailing winds
    (b) The sound of flapping sails
    (c) A happy tale of adventure
    (d) A happy song of the sea

Direction: Answer the following question by selecting the most appropriate options.

  1. While learning vocabulary, related words and the words which can occur before and after it. What is this technique called?
    (a) Dictation
    (b) Note making
    (c) Collocation
    (d) Conversation
  2. In a constructivist classroom while teaching a poem which of the following is not ideal?
    (a) Learners may find out on their own about the poet
    (b) Learners should be able to discover the ideas and meaning of the poem.
    (c)While teaching, a teacher should first given an introduction of the poet.
    (d) The poem does not need an introduction of the poet in the beginning.
  3. Etymology is:
    (a) science of study of language
    (b) science of meaning of words.
    (c) Science of knowing the origin of words
    (d) science of Pedagogy
  4. Teachers in an English medium school use only English to teach Science, Social Science and Mathematics. What approach do they adopt?
    (a) Immersion
    (b) Multidisciplinary approach
    (c) Bilingualism
    (d) Multilingualism
  5. Which one of the following skills is assessed if ‘close’ is used as a tool?
    (a) Speaking
    (b) Listening
    (c) reading for language learning
    (d) Writing for language listening skills
  6. Scanning & Skimming are strategies for:
    (a) Speaking
    (b) thinking
    (c) reading
    (d) writing
  7. Continuous comprehensive evaluation is:
    (a) assessment of learners while learning
    (b) periodic conduct of exams
    (c) continuous testing
    (d) continuous assessment
  8. The first generation learners are those who are:
    (a) learning Hindi for the first time
    (b) learning English for the first time.
    (c) the first from their family to come to schools
    (d) coming first time to school to seek admission
  9. The whole language perspective is:
    (a) teaching of language skills in an integrated manner
    (b) teaching for application
    (c) teaching of micro skills first.
    (d) teaching of LSRW separately.
  10. A good paragraph writing in English involves:
    (a) Ideas, presentation and coherence
    (b) Flowery language
    (c) Legible handwriting
    (d) Correct punctuation marks
  11. In order to know the correct pronunciation of English words, the learner should
    (a) know how to write the words.
    (b) know the spelling, meaning and how they are pronounced
    (c) know the meaning only
    (d) know the spelling
  12. A word gets its meaning:
    (a) from dictionary only
    (b) spelling
    (c) from its origin
    (d) in relation to its context
  13. When we sing a rhyme in an English language classroom, ,we:
    (a) familiarize the learner with the English sounds.
    (b) teach them to read
    (c) teach learner to understand the words.
    (d) teach them to learn to sing.
  14. A teacher reads out the text and explains it word-for-word in English. What method/approach does she adopt in her class?
    (a) Communicative language teaching
    (b) Task based language teaching
    (c) Direct method
    (d) Structural approach
  15. Students are asked to read a short text and make points for discussion. What skills of the learners are assessed?
    (a) Speaking skills
    (b) Writing skills
    (c) Study skills
    (d) Listening skills

भाग – IV
भाषा – I,हिन्दी

निर्देश: नीचे दिए गद्धांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 91-99) के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए|

‘किसी को देखने के लिए आँख को नहीं, दृष्टि की आवश्यकता होती है” – स्वामी विवेकानंद का यह कथन इस महिला के जीवन का दर्शन बन गया है | इसी जीवन दर्शन के सहारे उन्होंने एक और कठिनाइयों का सामना किया तो दूसरी और सफलता का मार्ग ढूंढा और उस पर निर्भयता से बढ़ चली | जी हाँ, हम बात कर रहे हैं मुंबई की रेवती राय की |
रेवती रॉय वह महिला है जिन्होंने महिलाओं की कठिनाइयों को ध्यान में रख केवल उन्हीं की सुविधा के लिए ‘फारशी’ नाम से कैब-सेवा प्रारंभ की | उद्देश्य स्पष्ट था – कामकाजी और जरूरतमंद महिलाओं को अपने शहर में सुरक्षित सफ़र का भरोसा देना | यह सेवा उन महिलाओं के लिए वरदान साबित हुई जिन्हें महानगरो में मुँह बाए बैठे अपराधी तत्वों या परपीड़ा में आनंद लेने वालों से प्राय: रोज ही जूझना पड़ता है |
खतरों और आशंकाओं से भरी सड़क-परिवहन की जिंदगी में कदम रखने का निर्णय लेना रेवती के लिए सरल नहीं था | लेकिन कभी-कभी विवशता भी प्रेरणा देती है | ऐसे ही अवसरों पर ‘आँख नहीं, दृष्टि’ वाला दर्शन प्रेरक होता है | गंभीर बीमारी से जूझ रहे पति के इलाज में सारी जमा पूंजी चुक जाने के बाद रेवती को अपने अस्तित्व के लिए कुछ-न-कुछ करना था | सो उन्होंने एकदम नया रास्ता चुना – कैब के द्वारा महिलाओं को सुरक्षित यात्रा का आश्वासन |

  1. कौन-सा विकल्प गद्धांश के मुख्य भाव के सबसे निकट है?
    (a) साहस और खतरे
    (b) पहले घर फिर बाहर
    (c) हिम्मत और जिंदगी
    (d) हिम्मत करे इंसान तो क्या काम है मुश्किल
  2. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय दोनों हैं?
    (a) प्रारंभ
    (b) सफलता
    (c) परिवहन
    (d) कठिनाइयाँ
  3. ‘परपीड़ा’ शब्द का गद्धांश में प्रयोग के अनुसार अर्थ है
    (a) दुसरो से पीड़ा
    (b) दुसरो में पीड़ा
    (c) दूसरों की पीड़ा
    (d) दुसरो को पीड़ा
  4. गद्धांश के प्रारंभ में उद्धृत कथन किसके जीवन का दर्शन बना ?
    (a) संघर्षशील व्यक्ति के
    (b) रेवती रॉय के
    (c) विवेकानंद के
    (d) आसुरक्षित महिलाओं के
  5. रेवती रॉय की कैब सेवा मूलतः किसके लिए है?
    (a) कामकाजी महिलाओं के लिए
    (b) महानगरो के लिए
    (c) जरूरतमंद लोगों के लिए
    (d) मुंबई के निवासियों के लिए
  6. कामकाजी महिलाओं को प्राय: नित्य ही जूझना पड़ता है-
    (a) मनमानी करने वाले चालको से
    (b) परिवहन की समस्याओं
    (c) गृहस्थी की समस्याओं
    (d) परपीड़क और अपराधी लोगो से
  7. कैब सेवा प्रारंभ करने के पीछे कारण था –
    (a) समाजसेवा की भावना
    (b) महिलाओं की कठिनाइयाँ
    (c) सामाजिक दवाब
    (d) पारिवारिक विवशता
  8. रेवती रॉय ने एक दम नया रास्ता चुना
    (a) खतरों में कदम रखने का
    (b) लोगो की सेवा करने का
    (c) बीमार पति की देखभाल का
    (d) महिलाओं के लिए कैब संचालन का
  9. किस जिंदगी को खतरों और आशंकाओं से भरा माना गया है ?
    (a) ‘फारशी’ कैब संचालन की
    (b) कामकाजी महिलाओं की
    (c) महानगरो की
    (d) सड़क परिवहन की

निर्देश: निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 100-105) के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए |
गरजते घन घनन-घन-घन,
नाचता है मोर-सा मन,
ऐसी पड़ी झर-झर झड़ी-
भीगा बदन बेसुध है मन |
आज वर्षा अजब आई !
बह रही है मस्त पुरवाई
नदी है द्वार तक आई,
मेघो से लिपटकर सो गया सूरज-
ले रहे है खेत अंगड़ाई |
आज वर्षा गजब आई!

  1. ‘बेसुध है मन’’ कहकर कवी बताना चाहता है कि मन-
    (a) गाने लगता है
    (b) झुमने लगता है
    (c) पानी से भीग जाता है
    (d) मस्त हो जाता है
  2. खेत अंगडाइयां ले रहे है क्योंकि –
    (a) सुबह हो गई, वे नींद से जाग रहे है|
    (b) उन्हें बहुत आनंद आ रहा है |
    (c) सूर्य दिखाई नहीं दे रहा है |
    (d) सूर्य के सो जाने से उन्हें भी नींद आ रही है|
  3. ‘गरजते घनन-घन-घन’ – में अलंकार है
    (a) रूपक
    (b) श्लेष
    (c) उपमा
    (d) अनुप्रास
  4. मन की उपमा किससे दी गई है?
    (a) मोर से
    (b) सावन से
    (c) बादलों से
    (d) वर्षा से
  5. ‘लिपटकर सो गया सूरज’ का भाव है कि सूर्य
    (a) थक गया है
    (b) छिप गया है|
    (c) नींद में है |
    (d) खो गया है |
  6. ‘पुरवाई से आशय है –
    (a) पूर्व की और बेहने वाली पवन
    (b) मदमस्त करने वाली हवा
    (c) पूर्व से आने वाली वायु
    (d) पूर्व को बहने वाली नदी

निर्देश: नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए|

  1. कक्षा आठ में पढने वाली नंदिनी लिखते समय वर्तनी की अशुद्धियाँ करती है | भाषा-शिक्षक के रूप में आप अपनी क्या जिम्मेदारी मानते है?
    (a) नंदनी को ऐसे अवसर प्रदान करना की वह स्वय उनमे सुधर करे|
    (b) नंदनी की अशुद्धियों को काटकर सही करना और उन्हें बीस=बीस बार लिखवाना|
    (c) नंदनी को समझाना की वर्तिनी की अशुद्धियां करने पर उसके अंक कट जायेंगे |
    (d) नंदिनी को समझाने की वर्तनी की शुद्धता ही लेखन का सशक्त पहलू है |

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