Staff Selection Commission successfully conducted the Exam of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical) on 31 January 2016 on a various selected centered all over the India in two shifts. A lot of candidates appeared in this examination. Candidates who appeared in this examination will be eager to know the Answer Key of SSC JE (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical). Staff Selection Commission will be released JE Answer Key soon on official website ssc.nic.in.Let’s check here unofficial SSC JE Answer key before official Answer Key. Eager candidates can check their performance and can tally their marks in the examination through this Answer Key and can make their satisfaction

SSC JE Answer Key 31 January 2016:

Department Name: Staff Selection Commission
Post Name: Junior Engineer (Civil, Electrical & Mechanical)
Total Posts: 1000
Exam Date: 31st January 2016
Official Answer Key: Available Soon
Official Website: ssc.nic.in
Unofficial Answer Key: Available below

General Intelligence & Reasoning

Directions: In question nos. 1 to 9, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

  1. CHAIR:FURNITURE::FORK
    (a) SPOON
    (b) CUTLERY
    (c) CROCKERY
    (d) FOOD
  2. Compass:Ship::Vasstu:?
    (a) Building
    (b) Flat
    (c) Home
    (d) Land
  3. BOOK:LIBRARY::?:FILE
    (a) COMPUTER
    (B) DATA
    (c) FOLDER
    (d) BYTES
  4. Q:d::b:?
    (a) p
    (b) d
    (c) q
    (d) b
  5. ABB:EGJ::FHL:?
    (a) BDH
    (b) JMT
    (c) FHH
    (D) JJL
  6. EV:KP::TG:?
    (a) ZA
    (b) AZ
    (c) ZZ
    (d) AA
  7. 21:65::31:?
    (a) 78
    (b) 80
    (c) 85
    (d) 95
  8. 17:102::23:?
    (a) 112
    (b) 138
    (c) 216
    (d) 413
  9. 25:36::?
    (a) 9:25
    (b) 16:25
    (c) 25:49
    (d) 81:121

Directions: In question nos. 10 to 17. Find the odd word/ number/letters/ number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. (a) stare
    (b) glance
    (c) look
    (d) hug
  2. (a) Analogy
    (b) Reasoning
    (c) Decoding
    (d) Cycling
  3. (a) Nephrology
    (b) Astrology
    (c) pathology
    (d) Entomology
  4. (a) accdff
    (b) prrsuu
    (c) mnnoqq
    (d) egghjj
  5. (a) OQTX
    (b) JMNQ
    (c) EGJN
    (d) XZCG
  6. (a) NMOK
    (b) PKQJ
    (c) RLSK
    (d) TGUF
  7. (a) 997
    (b) 976
    (c) 778
    (d) 895
  8. (a) 8
    (b) 87
    (c) 111
    (d) 96
  9. Pick the odd number from the sequence below
    2, 3, 6, 7, 11, 15, 30
    (a) 7
    (b) 11
    (c) 6
    (d) 30

Directions: In question nos. 19 to 21, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

  1. 1. Village
    2. State
    3. Nation
    4. Districts
    (a) 1, 2, 4, 3
    (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
    (c) 2, 3, 1, 4
    (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
  2. 1.Branches
    2. Root
    3. Trunk
    4. Leaf
    5. Flower
    (a) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
    (b) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
    (c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    (d) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
  3. 1.Adulthood
    2. Babyhood
    3. Childhood
    4. Infancy
    (a) 4, 3, 2, 1
    (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
    (c) 4, 1, 2, 3
    (d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Directions: In question nos. 22 to 27. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

  1. CDDP DEER   EFFT   FGGV    GHHX  ?
    (a) ZIIH
    (b) HIIJZ
    (c) HJJY
    (d) HIIJZ
  2. L m n m n o p n o p q r ?
    (a) pqrst
    (b) lmnop
    (c) opqrs
    (d) hpqrs
  3. R I A T N I E ?
    (a) A
    (b) B
    (c) C
    (d) D
  4. (1/8), (1/4), (1/2), 1, ?, 4
    (a) (3/8)
    (b) (2/8)
    (c) 2
    (d) 6
  5. 11, 12, 16, 25, ?
    (a) 45
    (b) 41
    (c) 43
    (d) 49
  6. 3, 9, 21, 45, ?
    (a) 54
    (b) 78
    (c) 87
    (d) 93
  7. Ramu’s mother has three sons. The elders one is called onekari, the second one is called twokari. Then the third son’s name is
    (a) Teenkari
    (b) Sandu
    (c) Ramu
    (d) Nokari
  8. Ashok is heavier than Gopal. Mahesh is lighter than Jayesh. Prashant is heavier than Jayesh but lighter Gopal. Who among them is heavies?
    (a) Gopal
    (b) Ashok
    (c) Prashant
    (d) Mahesh
  9. From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
    KILOMETERS
    (a) OIL
    (b) MEET
    (c) TREES
    (d) STREET
  10. In a certain code language, if the word ‘RHOMBUS’ is coded as TJQODWU, then how is the word ‘RECTANGLE’ in that language?
    (a) TGEVCPIMG
    (b) TGEVCPING
    (c) TGEWDPING
    (d) TGFWEPING
  11. If in a certain code ‘Education’ is written as 3 6 5 7 9 8 2 1 4 then how ‘Conduct’ can be written?
    (a) 7 1 4 6 5 7 8
    (b) 6 5 4 7 8 7 1
    (c) 1 4 5 8 7 7 6
    (d) 6 4 8 5 7 6 7
  12. If 7x=8k and 5y=6k, then the value of ratio x is to y is
    (a) 20:21
    (b) 21:20
    (c) 35:48
    (d) 48:35
  13. If 44+12=30, 77+14=61, 84+16=66 then what should be for 44+22=?
    (a) 28
    (b) 20
    (c) 32
    (d) 24
  14. Select the set of symbols which can be fitted correctly in the equation,
    8__4__2__6__3=32
    (a) x , -, +, ÷
    (b) +, x, ÷, –
    (c) +, ÷, x, –
    (d) -, x, ÷, +

Directions: In question nos. 36 and 37, select the missing number from the given responses.


  1. 36
    (a) 64
    (b) 69
    (c) 65
    (d) 68
  2. 20 30  12
    3     4     8
    80    ?     116
    (a) 120
    (b) 60
    (c) 100
    (d) 140
  3. Hospital is 12 km towards east of Rupin’s house. His school is 5 km ktowards south of Hospital. What is the shortest distance between Rupin’s house and school?
    (a) 16 km
    (b) 17 km
    (c) 12 km
    (d) 13 km
  4. Two cars started from a particular spot. The car A ran straight at the speed of 30 kmph for 2 kmph for 2 hours north and then took a right turn. It ran 40 km and again turned right. It stopped after 30 km. The car B ran straight towards east at the speed of 20 kmph for 2 hours and turned left. It ran for 10 km and then stopped. How far were these two cars from each other when both of them stopped at last?
    (a) 17 km
    (b) 18 km
    (c) 19 km
    (d) 20 km
  5. How many triangles are there in the figure?
    40
    (a) 7
    (b) 10
    (c) 16
    (d) 20
  6. Find the number of minimum straight lines required to make figure(a) 13
    (b) 17
    (c) 15
    (D) 19
  7. Find the number of space enclosed by rectangle but not by triangle.(a) 3
    (b) 2
    (c) 1
    (d) 4
  8. In the given figure, the circle stands for intelligent, square for hardworking, triangle for Post graduate and the rectangle for loyal employees. Study the figure and answer the following questions.Employees who are intelligent, hardworking and loyal but not Post graduate are represented by
    (a) 11
    (b) 5
    (c) 4
    (d) 3

Directions: In question nos. 44 and 45, one/two statement(s) are given followed by two conclusion/assumption, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion/assumptions, if any, follows from the given statemetns.

  1. Statements:
    All students are girls.
    Some student are not talented.
    Conclusions:
    No student is talented.
    II. Some girls are talented.
    (a) Only I follows
    (b) Only II follows
    (c) Both I and II follows
    (d) Neither I nor II follows
  2. Statements:
    Tigers do not fly.
    2. Hens do not fly.
    Conclusions:
    I. Tigers are birds.
    II. All birds cannot fly.
    (a) Only I follows
    (b) Only II follows
    (c) Either I or II follows
    (d) Neither I not II follows
  3. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
  4. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.
  5. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
  6. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
  7. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘M’ can be represented by 01, 14 etc., and ‘S’ can be represented by 58, 77 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘ROHAN’.(a) 11, 57, 00, 55, 12
    (b) 11, 75, 00, 55, 10
    (c) 32, 75, 21, 55, 10
    (d) 32, 67, 41, 55, 12

 

TEST-II: General Awareness

  1. Name the co-operative society that provides housing loan facility at reasonable rates
    (a) Credit co-operatives
    (b) Housing co-operatives
    (c) Consumer co-operatives
    (d) Producer’s co-operatives
  2. Name the biggest employer in India
    (a) Steel Authority of India (SAIL)
    (b) Post & Telecom Department
    (c) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
    (d) Indian Railway
  3. Which of the following is an allied activity of agriculture?
    (a) Livestock
    (b) Small Scale Industry
    (c) Money lending
    (d) Insurance
  4. Disguised unemployment means
    (a) Working as Self-Employed
    (b) Not working whole day
    (c) Marginal Productivity is zero
    (d) Production is less
  5. Cartel is a part of
    (a) Monopoly
    (b) Oligopoly
    (c) Perfect competition
    (d) Monopolistic competition
  6. In the presidential system of government, the President is
    (a) Head of the state
    (b) Head of the state and Head of the Government
    (c) Head of the Government
    (d) Head of the Executive
  7. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by
    (a) Chief Justice of India
    (b) Prime Minister
    (c) President
    (d) Parliament
  8. The Election Commission of India is
    (a) An independent body
    (b) Quasi-judicial body
    (c) Quasi-legislative body
    (d) Executive body
  9. Article 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution deal with
    (a) Right against Exploitation
    (b) Right to Freedom
    (c) Right to Freedom of Religion
    (d) Right to Education
  10. Which of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualization of politics?
    (a) Marxism
    (b) Socialism
    (c) Sarvodaya
    (d) Pluralism
  11. Which Delhi Sultan resorted to price control and rationing?
    (a) Balban
    (b) Muhammad-bin-tughluq
    (c) Bahlul Lodi
    (d0 Alaud-din-Khilji
  12. The Maratha ruler Shivaji ruled his kingdom with the help of a Council of Ministers called
    (a) Ashtapradan
    (b) Ashtadigajas
    (c) Navarathnas
    (d) Mantriparishad
  13. Florence Nightingale was associated with
    (a) Seven Year War
    (b) Thirty Years War
    (c) Crimean War
    (d) Hundred Years War
  14. Who among the following Gupta emperor was known as ‘Vikramadity’?
    (a) Smudra Gupta
    (b) Kumar Gupta
    (c) Chandra Gupta I
    (d) Chandra Gupta II
  15. The finely painted cotton fabric made in Golkonda was called
    (a) Calico
    (b) Muslin
    (c) Kalamakari
    (d) Palampore
  16. Which is the best type of cotton grown in the world?
    (a) Long staple
    (b) Medium staple
    (c) Short staple
    (d) Thick staple
  17. Which one of the following is first multipurpose project constructed in India?
    (a) Rihand
    (b) Thungabadra
    (c) Farrka Barrage
    (d) Damodar
  18. What is the symbol of (WWF) World Wildlife Fund?
    (a) Red Panda
    (b) Rhododendron
    (c) Bear
    (d) White Tiger
  19. Market Gardening comes in this category
    (a) Horticulture
    (b) Monoculture
    (c) Subsistence farming
    (d) Sericulture
  20. A deep or French in the ocean floor is called
    (a) Ridges
    (b) Crest
    (c) Trough
    (d) Continental Shelf
  21. The storage form of glucose is
    (a) Insulin
    (b) Glycogen
    (c) Glucagon
    (d) Gructose
  22. Thigmotropism is the response of the plant to
    (a) gravity
    (b) Water
    (c) Light
    (d) Contact
  23. Root hairs are produced from
    (a) trichomes
    (b) trichoblasts
    (c) rhizodermis
    (d) epidermis
  24. Second Ozone hole was detected over
    (a) Antarctica
    (b) Artica
    (c) Sweden
    (d) Northern hemisphere
  25. Glycolysis during fementation result in net gain of
    (a) 1 ATP
    (b) 2 ATPs
    (c) 3 ATPs
    (d) 4 ATPs
  26. The disadvantage of self-pollination is
    (a) seeds are less in number
    (b) no dependence of pollinating agents
    (c) mechanism is too simple
    (d) no wastage of pollengrains
  27. By increasing the intensity of incident light on the surface, the photo electric current
    (a) increase
    (b) decreases
    (c) unchanged
    (d) increases initially and then decreases
  28. The Phenomenon of light spilitting into seven distinct colours when it passes through prism is
    (a) diffraction
    (b) polarisation
    (c) dispersion
    (d) reflection
  29. A block placed on an inclined plane of slope angle q slides down with a constant speed. The coefficient of Kinetic friction is equal to
    (a) sin q
    (b) cos q
    (c) tan q
    (d) cot q
  30. A plump bob is hanging from the ceiling of a car. If the car moves with an acceleration a, the angle made by the string with the vertical is
    (a) sin-1(a/g)
    (b) sin -1(g/a)
    (c) tan-1(a/g)
    (d) tan-1(g/a)
  31. .com represents?
    (a) Communication domain
    (b) Educational domain
    (c) Commercial domain
    (d) Government domain
  32. IKE stands for
    (a) Internet Key Exchange
    (b) Information Key Execution
    (c) Information Key Exchange
    (d) Infrastructure Key Encryption
  33. When salt is added to water, the boiling point of water is
    (a) Lowered
    (b) Unaffected
    (c) Increased
    (d) Constant
  34. The gas dissolved in water that makes it acidic is
    (a) hydrogen
    (b) nitrogen
    (c) carbon dioxide
    (d) ammonia
  35. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is measure using a
    (a) thermometer
    (b) pH meter
    (c) hydrometer
    (d) barometer
  36. Non-bonding valence electrons are
    (a) Involved only in covalent bond formation
    (b) Involved only in ionic bond formation
    (c) Involved in both ionic and covalent bond formation
    (d) Not involved in covalent bond formation
  37. When is the World Earth Day celebrated?
    (a) 4 April
    (b) 22 April
    (c) 1 May
    (d) 23 March
  38. World “No Tobacco day” was observed globally on
    (a) 31 May
    (b) 2 June
    (c) 15 June
    (d) 20 June
  39. The greenhouse gases, otherwise called radio activity gases include
    (a) Carbon dioxide
    (b) CH4
    (c) N2O
    (d) All of these
  40. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is
    (a) air pollution
    (b) contamination of ground water
    (c) increased used of land for landfills
    (d) None of the above
  41. Who is called the ‘Father of Indian Cinema’?
    (a) Raj Kapoor
    (b) Dilip Kumar
    (c) Mehboob Khan
    (d) Dada Saheb Phalke
  42. Name the first Indian woman to climb Mount Everest
    (a) Santosh Yadav
    (b) Bachhendri pal
    (c) Rita Faria
    (D) Leela Seth
  43. Which IPL Team won the eight edition of the Indian premier League?
    (a) Mumbai Indians
    (b) Chennai Super Kings
    (c) Delhi Daredevils
    (d) Kolkata Knight Riders
  44. Nehru Trophy is associated with which sport in India?
    (a) Football
    (b) Cricket
    (c) Hockey
    (d) None of the above
  45. Aung san Suu Kyi, a prodemocracy campaigner, is from which of the following countries?
    (a) Nepal
    (b) Myanmar
    (c) Bangladesh
    (d) China
  46. Usian Bolt is famous as
    (a) an astronaut
    (b) a boxer
    (c) an athlete
    (d) a cricketer
  47. Which of the following is the morning ‘Raag’ in music?
    (a) Sohini
    (b) Bhairavi
    (c) Sarang
    (d) Malhaar
  48. When was the first All India Postage Stamp issued?
    (a) 1854
    (b) 1858
    (c) 1850
    (d) 1856
  49. In which country was paper currency first used?
    (a) India
    (b) Egypt
    (c) China
    (d) Japan
  50. The murder of Archduke Ferdinand and his wife triggered off which of the following events?
    (a) Crimean War
    (b) Balkan war
    (c) First World War
    (D) Second World War

Test-III: General Engineering (ELECTRICAL)

  1. If two capacitances C1 and C2 are connected in parallel then the equivalent capacitance is given by
    (a) C­1C2
    (b) C1/C2
    (c) C1C2/(C1+C2)
    (d) C1+C2
  2. For the circuit shown find the resistance between points P & Q.
    (a) 1Ω
    (b) 2 Ω
    (c) 3 Ω
    (d) 4 Ω
  3. A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. The current in the resistor if the colour code is red, orange, silved is
    (a) 2 mA
    (b) 2.2 mA
    (c) 214 mA
    (d) 21.4 mA
  4. A primary cell has an e.m.f of 1.5 V. When short circuited, it gives a current of 3 A. The internal resistance resistance of cell is
    (a) 4.5 Ω
    (b) 2 Ω
    (c) 0.2 Ω
    (d) 0.5 Ω
  5. Electrical resistivity p is
    (a) Low for copper and high for alloy
    (b) High for copper and low for alloy
    (c) Low for copper as well as for alloy
    (d) High for copper as well as for alloy
  6. The rate of change of current in a 4H inductor is 2 Amps/sec. Find the voltage across inductor.
    (a) 8 V
    (b) 0.8 V
    (c) 2 V
    (d) 16 V
  7. How much energy is stored by a 100 mH inductance when a current of 1 A is flowing through it?
    (a) 0.5 J
    (b) 0.05 J
    (c) 0.005 J
    (d) 5.0 J
  8. What is the Power consumed by the resistor of 20 Ω connected across 100 V source?
    (a) 500 W
    (b) 50 W
    (c) 100 W
    (d) 300 W
  9. A linear circuit is one whose parameters
    (a) change with change in current
    (b) change with change in voltage
    (c) do not change with voltage and current
    (d) None of the above
  10. An active element in a circuit is one which
    (a) supplies energy
    (b) receive energy
    (c) dissipates energy
    (d) both receives and supplies energy
  11. If 750µA is flowing through 11k Ω of resistance, what is the voltage drop across the resistor?
    (a) 8.25 V
    (b) 82.5 V
    (c) 14.6 V
    (d) 146 V
  12. Find the node voltage VA
    (a) 6 V
    (b) 5 V
    (c) 5.66 V
    (d) 6.66 V
  13. The current I in the electric circuit is
    (a) 1.7 A
    (b) 1 A
    (c) 2.7 A
    (d) 3.7 A
  14. The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains
    (a) a single voltage source
    (b) a number of voltage source
    (c) passive elements only
    (D) active elements only
  15. Thevenin’s theorem cannot be applied to
    (a) active circuit
    (b) linear circuit
    (c) nonlinear circuit
    (d) passive circuit
  16. A node in a circuit is defined as a
    (a) closed path
    (b) junction of two or more elements
    (c) group of interconnected elements
    (d) open terminal of an element
  17. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency will be
    (a) maximum
    (b) below 50%
    (c) above 50%
    (d) 50 %
  18. For the circuit shown, the Norton’s equivalent current source at terminals A & B is given by
    (a) 10 Ð0A
    (b) 20Ð0A
    (c) 16Ð86A
    (d) 14Ð36.86A
  19. The voltage across the 1 K Ω resistor of the network shown I the given figure is
    (a) 6 V
    (b) 4 V
    (c) 2 V
    (d) 1 V
  20. The internal resistance of a voltage source is 10 Ω and has 10 at its terminals. Find the maximum power that can be transferred to the load.
    (a) 25 W
    (b) 25 W
    (c) 2.5 W
    (d) 5 W
  21. Mutual inductance between two coils is 4 H. If current in one coil changes at the rate of 2 A/sec, then emf induced in the other coil is
    (a) 8 V
    (b) 2 V
    (c) 0.5 V
    (d) 5.0 V
  22. If the number of turns of a coil is increased, its inductance
    (a) remains the same
    (b) is increased
    (c) in decreased
    (d) None of the above
  23. The e.m.f induced in a coil of N turns is given by
    (a) d f/dt
    (b) N df/dt
    (c) –N df/dt
    (d) N dt/df
  24. When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the
    (a) direction of the magnetic field reverses
    (b) direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
    (c) magnetic field expands
    (d) magnetic field collapses
  25. The unit for permeability is
    (a) Wb/At x m
    (b) At/m
    (c) At/Wb
    (d) Wb
  26. If the co-efficient of coupling between two coils is increased, mutual inductance between the coils
    (a) is decreased
    (b) in increased
    (c) remains unchanged
    (d) changes depends on current only
  27. The magnitude of AT required to establish a given value of flux in the airgap will be much greater than that required for iron part of a magnetic circuit, because
    (a) air is a gas
    (b) air is a good conductor of magnetic flux
    (c) air has the lowest relative permeability
    (d) iron has the lowest permeability
  28. The area of the hysteresis loop will be least for one of the following materials. It is
    (a) wrought iron
    (b) hard steel
    (c) silicon steel
    (d) soft iron
  29. A current of 2 A passes through a coil of 350 turn wound on a ring of mean diameter 12 cm. The flux density established in the ring is 1.4 wb/m2. Find the value of relative permeability of iron.
    (a) 191
    (b) 600
    (c) 1200
    (d) 210 x 103
  30. A bar of iron 1 cm2 in cross-section has 10-4 wb of magnetic flux in it. If µr=2000 what is the magnetic field intensity in the bar?
    (a) 398 x 10-4 AT/m
    (b) 398 AT/m
    (c) 796×103 AT/m
    (d) 398×104 AT/m
  31. One since wave has a period of 2 ms, another has a period of 5 ms. And other has a period of 10 ms. Which since wave is changing at a faster rate?
    (a) Since wave with period 2 ms
    (b) Since wave with period of 5 ms
    (c) All are at the same rate
    (d) Since wave with period of 10 msec
  32. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to ½, the current will
    (a) be reduced by half
    (b) be doubled
    (c) be four times as high
    (d) be reduced to one fourth
  33. There are 3 lamps 40 W, 100 W and 60 w. To realise the full rated power of the lamps they are to be connected in
    (a) series only
    (b) parallel only
    (c) series-parallel
    (d) series or parallel
  34. Two lamps, Green (G) and Red ® are connected in a motor circuit as shown in the figure. The conditions under which the lamps will burn are, (supply is available at terminals A & B)
    (a) Green lamp burns always, red lamp burns only when switch S is closed
    (b) Green and red lamp burns when switch S is closed
    (c) Green lamp burns only when switch S is closed
    (d) Green lamp burns only when S is open and red lamp burns only when S is closed.
  35. If in an RLC series circuit, the frequency is below the resonant frequency, then
    (a) Xc=XL
    (b) Xc<XL
    (c) Xc>XL
    (d) None of the above
  36. An RLC series circuit has R=10Ω, L=@ H. What value of capacitance will make the circuit critically damped?
    (a) 0.02 F
    (b) 0.08 F
    (c) 0.2 F
    (d) 0.4 F
  37. When a series RL circuit is connected to a voltage source V at t=0, the current passing through the inductor L at t=0+ is
    (a) V/R
    (b) infinite
    (c) zero
    (d) V/L
  38. Three wattmeter method of power measurement can be used to measure power in
    (a) Balanced circuits
    (b) Unbalanced circuits
    (c) Both balanced and unbalanced circuits
    (d) None of the above
  39. In a three system, the volt ampere rating is given by
    (a) 3 VL IL
    (b) 3 VL IL
    (c) VL IL
    (d) Vph Iph
  40. In a parallel RLC circuit if the lower cut-off frequency is 2400 Hz and the upper cut-off frequency is 2800 Hz what is the bandwidth?
    (a) 400 Hz
    (b) 2400 Hz
    (c) 2800 Hz
    (d) 5200 Hz
  41. The errors in current transformers can be reduced by designing them with
    (a) high permeability and low loss core materials, avoiding any joints in the core and also keeping the flux density to a low value
    (b) using primary and secondary windings as close to each other as possible
    (c) using large cross-section for both primary and secondary winding conductors
    (d) All of these
  42. A CRO screen has ten division on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin(314t+45o) is examined with a line base setting of 5 msec/div, the number of cycle of signal displayed on the screen will be
    (a) 0.5 cycle
    (b) 2.5 cycles
    (c) 5 cycles
    (d) 10 cycles
  43. In the Maxwell bridge as shown in the figure the values of resistance Rx and inductance Lx of a coil are to be calculated after balancing the bridge. The component values are shown in the figure at balance. The Values of Rx and Lx will respectively be
    (a) 375 ohm, 75 mH
    (b) 75 ohm, 150 mH
    (c) 37.5 ohm, 75 mH
    (d) 75 ohm, 75 mH
  44. Creeping in a single phase induction type energy meter may be due to
    (a) over compensation for friction
    (b) over voltage
    (c) vibrations
    (d) All of these
  45. Which instrument is used to measure the high resistance?
    (a) Kelvin’s Double bridge
    (b) Wheatstone bridge
    (c) Carey-Foster bridge
    (d) Megger
  46. Modern electronic multimeters measure resistance by
    (a) using a bridge circuit
    (b) using an electronic compensator for nulling
    (c) forcing a constant current and measuring the voltage across the unknown resistance
    (d) using an electrical bridge circuit
  47. If a dynamometer type wattmeter is connected in an ac circuit, the power indicated by the wattmeter will be
    (a) Volt ampere product
    (b) Average power
    (c) peak power
    (d) Instantaneous power
  48. A 150 V moving iron voltmeter of accuracy class 1-0 reads 75 V when used in a circuit under standard conditions. The maximum possible percentage error in the reading is
    (a) 0.5
    (b) 1.0
    (c) 0.2
    (d) 4.0
  49. A dc voltmeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω/volt. When it measures half full in 100 V range, the current through the voltmeter will be
    (a) 100 mA
    (b) 50 mA
    (c) 1 mA
    (d) 0.5 mA
  50. A lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has 5 horizontal tangencies and 2 vertical tangencies. The frequency of the horizontal input is 100 Hz. The frequency of the vertical input will be
    (a) 400 Hz
    (b) 2500 Hz
    (c) 4000 Hz
    (d) 5000 Hz
  51. The no load input power to a transformer is practically equal to ______ loss in the transformer.
    (a) Iron
    (b) Copper
    (c) Eddy current
    (d) Windage
  52. The primary and secondary winding of a transformer are wound on the top of each other in order to reduce
    (a) iron losses
    (b) copper losses
    (c) leakage reactance
    (d) winding resistance
  53. Leakage flux in transformer occurs because
    (a) iron core has high permeability
    (b) air is not a good magnetic insulator
    (c) applied voltage is sinusoidal
    (d) transformer is not an efficient device
  54. The no load primary current Ia. is about _____ of full load primary current of a transformer.
    (a) 3-5%
    (b) 15-30%
    (c) 30-40%
    (d) Above 40%
  55. Which of the following Braking is not suitable for motors?
    (a) Dynamic braking
    (b) Plugging
    (c) Regenerative braking
    (d) Friction braking
  56. An eight pole wound rotor induction motor operating on 60 Hz supply is driven at 1800 rpm by a prime mover in the opposite direction of revolving magnetic field. The frequency of rotor current is
    (a) 60 Hz
    (b) 120 Hz
    (c) 180 Hz
    (d) 200 Hz
  57. If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced to 50 per cent of its rated value, torque developed is reduced by how many percentage of its full load value?
    (a) 50%
    (b) 25%
    (c) 75%
    (d) 57.7%
  58. A shot shunt compound generator supplies a load current of 100 A at 250 V. The generator has the following winding resistances:
    shunt field=130Ω, armature =0.1 Ω and series field = 0.1 Ω. Find the emf generated if the brush drop is I V per brush
    (a) 262.0 volt
    (b) 262.2 volt
    (c) 272.0 volt
    (d) 272.2 volt
  59. As the load is increased, the speed of a dc shunt motor
    (a) increases proportionatiely
    (b) remains constant
    (c) increases slightly
    (d) reduces slightly
  60. The Ta Vs Ia graph of a dc series motor is a
    (a) parabola from no load to over load
    (b) straight line throughout
    (c) parabola throughout
    (d) parabola up to full load and a straight line at over load
  61. The purpose of starting winding in a single phase induction motor is to
    (a) Reduce losses
    (b) Limit temperature rise of the machine
    (c) Produce rotating flux in conjunction with main winding
    (d) Increase losses
  62. Which of the following motors is used in mixies?
    (a) Repulsion motor
    (b) Reluctance motor
    (c) Hysteresis motor
    (d) Universal motor
  63. The motor used on small lathes is usually
    (a) universal motor
    (b) D.C. shunt motor
    (c) single phase capacitor
    (d) 3-phase synchronous motor
  64. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders?
    (a) Shaded pole motor
    (b) Hysteresis motor
    (c) Two valve capacitor motor
    (d) Universal motor
  65. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is
    (a) equal to full load current
    (b) less than full load current
    (c) slightly more than full load current
    (d) several times the full load current
  66. Each of the following statements regarding a shaded pole motor is true except
    (a) its direction or rotation is from unshaded to shaded portion of poles
    (b) it has very poor efficiency
    (c) it has very poor power factor
    (D) it has high starting torque
  67. Synchronous impedance method of finding voltage regulation of an alternator is called pessimistic method because
    (a) it is simplest to perform and compute
    (b) it gives regulation value higher than is actually found by direct loading
    (c) armature reaction is wholly magnetising
    (d) it gives regulation value lower than is actually found by direct loading
  68. Which of the following motor is non-self starting?
    (a) Squirrel cage induction motor
    (b) Slip ring induction motor
    (c) Synchronous motor
    (d) DC series motor
  69. A salient-pole synchronous motor is operating at ¼ full-load. If its field current is suddenly switched off, it would
    (a) stop running
    (b) continue to run at asynchronous speed
    (c) run at sub-synchronous speed
    (d) run at super-synchronous speed
  70. A 10 pole 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is driven by 60 Hz synchronous motor then the number of poles in a synchronous motor are
    (a) 48 poles
    (b) 12 poles
    (c) 24 poles
    (d) None of the above
  71. The reactive power generated by a synchronous alternator can be controlled by
    (a) changing the prime move input
    (b) changing the alternator speed
    (c) changing the field excitation
    (d) changing the terminal voltage
  72. The per phase DC armature resistance of an alternator is 0.5Ω. The effective AC armature resistance would be about
    (a) 0.25 Ω
    (b) 0.5 Ω
    (c) 0.75 Ω
    (d) 1 Ω
  73. Base load of a power station stands for
    (a) 2-4 hours/day
    (b) 4-8 hours/day
    (c) 8-12 hours/day
    (d) 12-24 hours/day
  74. If the power factor is high, then the consumer maximum KVA demand
    (a) increases
    (b) decreases
    (c) remains constant
    (d) becomes zero
  75. A circuit breaker is rated as follows:
    1500 A, 33 KV, 3 sec., 3-phase oil circuit breaker. Determine the making current.
    (a) 1.5 KA
    (b) 35 KA
    (c) 89 KA
    (d) 110 KA
  76. Which of the following fault is coming under symmetrical fault?
    (a) LG fault
    (b) LL fault
    (c) LLG fault
    (d) LLLG fault
  77. If span length is doubled with no change in other factors, the sag of the line will become
    (a) 0.5 times
    (b) 2 times
    (c) 4 times
    (d) 8 times
  78. An alternator is supplying a load of 300 kW at a power factor of 0.6 lagging. If the power factor is raised to unity, how many more kW can alternator supply?
    (a) 100 kW
    (b) 150 kW
    (c) 200 kW
    (d) 300 kW
  79. What is the maximum number of point of light, fan and socket-outlets that can be connected in one sub-circuit?
    (a) Four
    (b) Six
    (c) Ten
    (d) Twelve
  80. In dc operation of fluorescent tube, the life of the tube
    (a) increases by about 80% as that with ac operation
    (b) decreases by about 80% as that with ac operation
    (c) remain same
    (d) may increase or decrease
  81. For painful shock, what is the range of electric shock current at 50 Hz?
    (a) 0-1 mA
    (b) 0-3 mA
    (c) 3-5 mA
    (d) 5-10 mA
  82. The permissible voltage drop from supply terminal to any point on the wiring system should not exceed
    (a) 4% + 1volt
    (b) 3% + 1 volt
    (c) 2% + 1 volt
    (d) 1% + 1 volt
  83. In batton wiring the cables are carried on seasoned teak wood perfectly straight and well varnished teak wood batton of thickness not less than
    (a) 1 cm
    (b) 2 cm
    (c) 3 cm
    (d) 4 cm
  84. For cleat wiring and 250 volts supply, the cables will be placed _____ apart centre to centre for single core cables
    (a) 2.5 cm
    (b) 3 cm
    (c) 4 cm
    (d) 4.5 cm
  85. The aluminium conductor of size ____ is used for a subcircuit in domestic wiring.
    (a) 1/1.2 mm
    (b) 1/1.4 mm
    (c) 1/1.8 mm
    (d) 1/2.24 mm
  86. The minimum area of cross-section of a three and half core cable should be
    (a) 30 cm2
    (b) 40 cm2
    (c) 50 cm2
    (d) 60 cm2
  87. The acceptable value of grounding resistance for domestic application is
    (a) 0.5 Ω
    (b) 1 Ω
    (c) 1.5 Ω
    (d) 2 Ω
  88. Humans are more vulnerable to electric shock current at
    (a) 40 Hz
    (b) 45 Hz
    (c) 48 Hz
    (d) 50 Hz
  89. A 200 V lamp takes a current of 1 A, it produces a total flux of 2,860 lumens. The efficiency of the lamp is
    (a) 9.9 lumens/W
    (b) 8.9 lumens/W
    (c) 10.9 lumens/W
    (d) 14.3 lumens/W
  90. The unit of luminous flux is
    (a) steradian
    (b) candela
    (c) lumen
    (d) lux
  91. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating element is approximately
    (a) 385 Ω
    (b) 38.5 Ω
    (c) 3.1 Ω
    (d) 31 Ω
  92. During the resistance welding, the heat produced at the joint is proportional to
    (a) I2R
    (b) Voltage
    (c) Current
    (d) Volt-Ampere
  93. An arc blow is a welding defect that is countered with the help of carrying
    (a) the are welding using AC supply
    (b) the thermit welding
    (c) the arc welding using DC supply
    (d) the resistance welding
  94. The electric drives posses the following drawback
    (a) not available with various rating
    (b) requires a continuous power supply
    (c) required hazardous fuel requirement
    (d) not adoptable to various environments
  95. An amplifier has a gain of 10,000 expressed in decibels the gain is
    (a) 10
    (b) 40
    (c) 80
    (d) 100
  96. Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
    (a) it is an indirect semiconductor
    (b) it is a covalent semiconductor
    (c) it is an elemental semiconductor
    (d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO
  97. To operate properly, a transistor’s base-emitter junction must be forward biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?
    (a) Collector-emitter
    (b) Base-collector
    (c) Base- emitter
    (d) Collector-base
  98. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor transistor terminals should be
    (a) Open
    (b) Infinite
    (c) Low resistance
    (d) High resistance
  99. In Bipolar junction transistors, the type of configuration which will give both voltage gain and current gain is
    (a) CC
    (b) CB
    (c) CE
    (d) None
  100. To prepare a P type semiconducting material the impurities to be added to silicon are
    (a) Boron, Gallium
    (b) Arsenic, Antimony
    (c) Gallium, Phoosphorous
    (d) Gallium, Arsenic

 

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