Check here Allahabad Bank Probationary officer previous year exam paper. Allahabad Bank Published 1500 Probationary Officer in 2011 along with 1100 clerks. Exam held on 17 April 2011 for PO and 8 May 2011 for Clerk Vacancies. Candidates who had appeared in the examination can check his performance from below answer sheet. Allahabad Bank is one of the renounced names and one of the most reputed bank in the banking sector of India. Generally Allahabad Bank recruits dynamic and performance oriented candidates for clerk, PO and MT, Supervisors, advisors.

Allahabad Bank PO Syllabus/Exam details:

Allahabad Bank Probationary officer consists two paper 1st is Written test and 2nd is Interview. Written test consists 2 paper

  • Objective paper
    • Reasoning Ability
    • Quantitative Aptitude.
    • General Awareness.
    • Computer Knowledge.
    • English Language.
  • Descriptive paper of English Composition

Allahabad Bank Previous year PO Exam Paper:

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, Tj V, W and X are captains of eight different cricket teams, namely Australia, New Zealand, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, England, West Indies and South Africa, but not necessarily in the same order. All of them are seated around a circular table and are facing the centre.

P sits third to the left of the Sri Lankan captain. Only two people sit between T and W. Neither T nor W is an immediate neighbour of P. Neither T nor W is the captain of Sri Lanka. The captain of South Africa sits second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of P. S is not the Sri Lankan captain and  P is not the captain of South Africa. The Australian captain sits third to the left of V. The Australian and Sri Lankan captains are not immediate neighbours. Only one person sits between S and the Indian captain. Captains of Pakistan and New Zealand are immediate neighbours. S is not the captain of New Zealand’s team. Only one person sits between Q and the captain of England. The captain of England is an immediate neighbour of X. W and Q are not immediate neighbours.

  1. How many people sit between T and the captain of England when counted in clockwise direction from T?
    l) None
    2) One
    3) Two
    4) Four
    5) Five
  2. Who is the captain of the Australian team?
    1)P
    2)V
    3)W
    4)T
    5)Q
  3. Which of the following would come in place of question mark based upon the given seating arrangement?
    VS   XR   TV   RP   ?
    1)SW
    2)WX
    3)QW
    4)QX
    5)VR
  4. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
    1) R is the captain of South Africa.
    2) W is an immediate neighbour of V.
    3)The captains of Australia and England are immediate       neighbours.
    4) Four people sit between W and Q.
    5) X sits second to the left of S.
  5. Who is the Indian captain?
    1)Q
    2)V
    3)X
    4)T
    5) Cannot be determined
  6. What is the position of the captain of West Indies with respect to R?1) Immediate left
    2) Second to the left
    3) Third to the right
    4) Second to the right
    5) Third to the left
    Directions (Q. 7-8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.Amongst five friends, each got a different percentage of marks in the examination. Poonam scored more than Ben but less than Ajay. Ajay scored 70% marks. Shreya scored less marks than only Kim. The one who scored the minimum marks scored 65% marks and the one who scored the highest, scored 87% marks.
  7. Who scored the second lowest marks?
    1)Ben
    2)Kim
    3) Shreya
    4)Ajay
    5) Poonam
  8. Who is the most likely to have scored 82% marks?
    1)Ben
    2) Poonam
    3) Shreya
    4) Kim
    5) Either Kim or BenDirections (Q. 9-13): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Q. 11-13 are based upon the English alphabetical series.)
  9. 1) Succeed
    2) Victory
    3) Triumph
    4) Compete
    5) Win
  10. 1) Fair
    2) Impartial
    3)Indifferent
    4)Unbiased
    5)Just
  11. 1)KP
    2)BY
    3)DW
    4)HU
    5)GT
  12. 1)JLNK
    2)TVXU
    3)ACEB
    4)PRTQ
    5)GJKH
  13. 1)GIJF
    2)OQRN
    3)KMNL
    4)UWXT
    5)CEFB
    Directions (Q. 14-18): Read each of the following statements carefully and answer the questions.
  14. Which of the following expressions will be true if the given expression ‘ A > B ≥ C < D < E’ is definitely true?
    1)A≥C
    2)E>C
    3)D≥B
    4)A > D
    5)None of these
  15. If the expressions ‘E < J ≤ H > Z’, ‘H ≤Y’ and ‘E > F’ are true, which of the following conclusions will be definitely false?
    1)F<Y
    2)Y>E
    3)F<H
    4)J ≤ Y
    5)Allaretrue
  16. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘K ≤ H’ and ‘M > J’ definitely true?
    H > I = J ? K ≤ L < M
    1)>
    2)≥
    3)≤
    4)Either<or≤
    5)= (answer)
  17. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘ P > S ‘ b e definitely false?
    1)P>Q≥ R = S
    2)S ≤ R ≤ Q < P
    3)R = P > Q ≥ S
    4)S < Q ≤ R < P
    5)S > Q ≥ R < P
  18. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that ‘N < K’ definitely holds true?
    K — L — M — N
    1)≥,=,>
    2)K≤,<=
    3)≥,=,<
    4)>,≥,<
    5)None of these
    Directions (Q. 19-26): In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer1) If only conclusion I follows.
    2) If only conclusion II follows.
    3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    5) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.19-20: Statements:   All buildings are houses. No house is an apartment. All apartments are flats.
  19. Conclusions:    I. No flat is a house.
    II. No building is an apartment.
  20. Conclusions:    I. All buildings being flats is a possibility.
    II. All apartments being building is a possibility.
    21-22: Statements:  Some oceans are seas. All oceans are rivers. No river is a canal.
  21. Conclusions:    I. All rivers can never be oceans.
    II. All canals being oceans is a possibility.
  22. Conclusions:      I. No ocean is a canal.
    II. At least some seas are rivers.
    23-24: Statements: No day is night. All nights are noon.No noon is an evening.
  23. Conclusions:     I. No day is noon.
    II. No day is an evening.
  24. Conclusions:     I. No evenings are nights.
    II. All days being noon is a possibility.
    25-26: Statements: Some papers are boards. No board is a card.
  25. Conclusions:     I. No card is a paper.
    II. Some papers are cards.
  26. Conclusions:     I. All cards being papers is a possibility.
    II. All boards being papers is a possibility.
    Directions (Q. 27-32): Study the following information to answer the given questions:Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
    D sits third to the left of A. P faces immediate neighbour of D. R sits second to the right of P. Only one person sits between Q and S. B and E are immediate neighbours. E does not face P and Q.
  27. How many persons are seated between Q and T?
    1)None
    2)One
    3)Two
    4)Three
    5)Cannot be determined
  28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
    1)R
    2)S
    3)C
    4)T
    5)A
  29. Who amongst the following are sitting exactly in the middle of the rows?
    1) P, E
    2) S, D
    3) S, A
    4) A, R
    5) P, B
  30. Which of the following is true regarding B?
    1)A and Care immediate neighbours of B.
    2)B sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
    3)Q faces B.
    4)T is an immediate neighbour of the person facing B.
    5)D sits on the immediate left of B.
  31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
    1)T – E
    2)Q – C
    3)S – B
    4)R – A
    5)P – D

32. Who amongst the following faces S?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Directions (Q. 33-38): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code, ‘her idea has merit’ is written as ‘fo la bu na\ ‘merit list has been displayed’ is written as ‘jo ke la si na’, ‘her name displayed there’ is written as ‘ya si bu zo’ and ‘name in merit list’ is written as ‘na ya go ke’.

33. What does ‘ke’ stand for?

  • been
  • has
  • merit
  • name
  • list

34. What is the code for’ idea’?

  • fo
  • la
  • bu
  • na
  • Either bu or na

35. Which of the following represents ‘name has been displayed’?

  • yalakesi
  • josiyala
  • sijokena
  • buyakela
  • yasijozo

36. What does ‘zo’ stand for?

  • there
  • displayed
  • name
  • her
  • Cannot be determined

37. Which of the following may represent ‘her name is there’?

  • zoyagowo
  • buyazogo
  • zoyabuke
  • ya zo wo bu
  • wo go zo ya

38. What is the code for ‘in’?

  • na
  • ya
  • go
  • ke
  • Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 39-43): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: sum28 have 19 96 48 luck nice 78 rope
Step I: have sum 28 19 48 luck nice 78 rope 96
Step II: luck have sum 28 19 48 nice rope 96 78
Step III: nice luck have sum 28 19 rope 96 78 48
Step IV: rope nice luck have sum 19 96 78 48 28
Step V: sum rope nice luck have 96 78 48 28 19
And step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in  each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below:
Input: 49 last zen 16 82 yet can vast 33 aim 87 54

39. How many steps will be needed to complete the arrangement?

  • IV
  • V
  • VI
  • VII
  • None of these

40. vast last can aim zen 16 yet 33 87 82 54 49

  • III
  • II
  • VII
  • IV
  • There will be no such step

41. Which of the following would be step I?

  • aim 49 can zen 16 yet vast 33 54 87 82
  • vast last can aim zen 16 yet 33 87 82 54 49
  • zen 49 last 16 82 yet can vast 33 aim 54 87
  • aim 49 last zen 82 yet can vast 33 87 54 16
  • None of these

42. In step V, which of the following words numbers would be at 6th position from the right?

  • 87
  • 16
  • 33
  • zen
  • aim

43. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

  • zen yet vast last can aim 16 33 49 54 82 87
  • aim can last vast yet zen 16 33 49 54 82 87
  • aim can last vast yet zen 87 82 54 49 33 16
  • zen yet vast last can aim 87 82 54 49 33 16
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 44-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, Meenal, Rumia, Shikha, Ali, Peter, Harleen, Ketan and Bharat, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
Bharat sits second to the right of Shikha. Bharat does not sit at any of the corners. Meenal sits third to the right of Peter. Peter is not an immediate neighbour of Shikha. Rumia and Ketan are immediate neighbours of each other but Rumia does not sit at any of the corners of the table. Harleen is an immediate neighbour of neither Peter nor Shikha.

44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

  • Peter
  • Rumia
  • Harleen
  • Shikha
  • Bharat

45. Who sits third to the left of Ali?

  • Bharat
  • Rumia
  • Shikha
  • peter
  • Cannot be determined

46. What is the position of Peter with respect to Meenal?

  • Immediate to the left
  • Second to the left
  • Third to the left
  • Third to the right
  • Second to the right

47. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of Ketan?

  • Shikha
  • Ali
  • Bharat
  • Harleen
  • Meenal

48. Who amongst the following represent the immediate neighbours of Harleen?

  • Meenal, Ketan
  • Bharat, Rumia
  • Bharat, Meenal
  • Ali, Rumia
  • Ali, Ketan

49. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Peter and Ali?

  • Only Bharat
  • Ketan and Rumia
  • Only Harleen
  • Harleen and Meenal
  • No one sits between Peter and Ali.

50. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of Meenal?

  • Rumia
  • Ali
  • Ketan
  • Harleen
  • Shikha

Directions (Q. 51-55): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it You have to decide whether the data provide in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

51. How is ‘letter’ written in a code language?
I. ‘please write a letter’ is written as ‘7218” and received a Greek letter’ is written as ‘7513’.
II ‘write in English please’ is written as ‘2084’ and ‘a letter in Greek’ is written as ‘5714’.

52. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?
I. A sits third to the left of D. B sits on the immediate right of C.
II. B sits second to the right of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of D.

53. A six-storey building consisting of an unoccupied ground floor and five floors on top of the ground floor numbered 1,2, 3,4 and 5 houses five different persons, viz A, B, C, D and E. Who lives on the third floor?
I. C lives on an even-numbered floor. A lives immediately above D. B lives immediately above A.
II D lives on an odd-numbered floor. A and B are immediate neighbours. Similarly, C and E are immediate neighbours. C does not live on an odd -numbered floor.

54. Areall the four friends,Abhay,Kavita,Prashantand Yasir, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?
I. Kavita sits second to the left of Abhay. Abhay faces the centre. Yasir sits on the immediate right of Abhay as well as Kavita.
II. Prashant sits third to the right of Kavita. Abhay sits on the immediate right of Prashant as well as Yasir.

55. Is R the grand-daughter of C?
I. The only sister of A is the mother of R’s brother B.
II. C, the mother of A, has only one grandson B.

56. Read the following information and five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which follow. Excerpt from a research report-‘Average life expectancy in southern part of India is far more than that in Western India. While the average life of a native of South India is 82 years, the average life of a native of Western India is only 74 years.’ Based on the above fact, the proposal that the above study makes is that if an individual moves from Western India to South India, his/her life expectancy would immediately increase by eight years.
Which of the following statements would weaken the above-mentioned study’s proposal that people belonging to Western parts of India should move to South India to increase their life expectancy?

  • The average life expectancy of population living in Eastern part of the country is also less than the population living in South India.
  • Nearly 80% of the population in Southern India has a minimum age of 83 years.
  • Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be ascribed to the genetic makeup of the population belonging to that area.
  • The average life expectancy of South India is comparable to the best averages in the world.
  • Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be attributed to better environmental conditions and better healthcare facilities.

Directions (Q. 57-60): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Fortunately, more and more countries are shifting their focus away from industrial development to control of climate change these days.

  • The countries which focus more on controlling climate change than industrial development are only the richer ones which can afford to concentrate on areas other than industrial development.
  • Many countries had once prioritised industrial development which proved to be harmful to the environment in the long run.
  • Some experts are of the view that climate change is not as alarming an issue as it is made to be because it is a natural phenomenon and has been occurring regularly throughout the history of earth.
  • If climate change continues at the present rate, it would bring in large-scale destruction to human habitation in a very short time.
  • Industrial development is one of the biggest but definitely not the only reason behind global warming.

57. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, and D mentioned above would weaken the argument for the need of a shift away from industrial development to that of controlling climate changes?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • Both B and D

58. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be assumed/inferred from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted and an inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)

  • E
  • C
  • A
  • B
  • Either D or A

59. Which of the following can be inferred from statement (E) if it is considered to be true with regard to the given information?

  • Nations also need to focus on sources other than those generated due to industrial development.
  • Other sources of pollution have more adverse effects as compared to those generated due to industrial development.
  • Unlike older times, industrial development has ceased to be a reason behind global warming these days.
  • If industrial development stops, global warming would automatically come to an end.
  • If sources other than industrial development are identified and controlled, global warming will end completely.

60. Which of the statements numbered A, C, D and E mentioned above represents a reason behind curtailing industrial development by some of the countries?

  • Either C or E
  • D
  • C
  • Either A or C
  • A

Directions (Q. 61-70): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures below should come after the problem figures on up, if the sequence were continued?
61

Fifth option is correct

62

Third option is correct

63

Fourth option is correct

64

First option is correct

65

Third option is correct

66

Fifth option is correct

67

Fourth option is correct

68

Second option is correct

69

First option is correct

70

Third option is correct

Directions (Q. 71-75): The second figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to either the first or the second figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the place of the question mark(?).

71

Fifth option is correct

72

Second option is correct

73

Third option is correct

74

Second option is correct

75

Fourth option is correct

Test-II: Quantitative Aptitude

76. 3/19 of 30% of 3420=(?)²x2

  • (81)²
  • 7
  • 9
  • 81
  • 49

77. 1898÷73×73=(?)²x13

  • -256
  • 256
  • 12
  • 144
  • -16

78. √(7²x24x2-(11)²+3)=?

  • 42
  • 1024
  • 1764
  • (1024)²
  • 32

79. (0.81)²÷(0.729)³x((0.9)²=(0.9)^?-3

  • 6
  • 2
  • 4
  • 0
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 81-85): What approximate value will come in place of quesiton mark (?) in the following quesitons ? (Tou are not expected to calcualte the exact value.)

81. √3100x√567÷√=?÷8

  • 620
  • 670
  • 770
  • 750
  • 700

82. 89.988% of 699.9+50.002% of 999.99-170.015=?

  • 990
  • 900
  • 920
  • 960
  • 860

83. (340/20.002)÷(29.997/510)x(179.909/59.919)=?

  • 760
  • 800
  • 690
  • 870
  • 780

84. 6999÷70.005×94.998=?x19.999

  • 475
  • 420
  • 320
  • 540
  • 525

85. (49.99)²-(8.9)²-(15.9)²=?

  • 2165
  • 2000
  • 1965
  • 1920
  • 1885

Directions mark (Q. 86-90): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number sereis?

86. 958  833  733  658  608  ?

  • 577
  • 583
  • 567
  • 573
  • None of these

87. 11  10  18  51  200  (?)

  • 885
  • 1025
  • 865
  • 995
  • None of these

88. 25  48  94  186  370  ?

  • 738
  • 744
  • 746
  • 724
  • None of these

89. 14  24  43  71 108  ?

  • 194
  • 154
  • 145
  • 155
  •  None of these

90. 144  173  140  169  136  (?)

  • 157
  • 148
  • 164
  • 132
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 91-95): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. Your have solve both the equations and

Give answer    If
1)                       x>y
2)                      x≥y
3)                      x<y
4)                      x≤y
5)                       x=y or the relationship cannot be established

91-92-93

94-95

96. The ratio of the speed of a bus to that of a train is 15 :27. Also, a car covered a distance of 720 km in 9 hours. The speed of the bus is three-fourths the speed of the car. How much distance will the train cover in 7 hours?

  • 760 km
  • 756 km
  • 740 km
  • Cannot be determined
  • None of these

97. Raman’s present age is three times his daughter’s and nine-thirteenth of his mother’s present age. The sum of the present ages of all three of them is 125 years. What is the difference between the present ages of Raman’s daughter and Raman’s mother?

  • 45 years
  • 40 years
  • 50 years
  • Cannot be determined
  • None of these

98. What is the value of twenty-four per cent of four-ninths of five times square of twenty-seven?

  • 388.8
  • 376.8
  • 378.6
  • 346.6
  • None of these

99. The sum of the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square is equal to 272 cm. The diameter of the circle is 56 cm. What is the sum of the areas of the circle and
the square?

  • 2464 sq cm
  • 2644 sq cm
  • 3040 sq cm
  • Cannot be determined
  • None of these

100. The largest and the second largest angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3. The smallest angle is half the largest angle. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest angles of the triangle?

  • 30°
  • 60°
  • 40°
  • 20°
  • None of these

101. Kamya purchased an item for 746,000 and sold it at a loss of 12 per cent. With that amount she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 12 per cent. What was her overall gain/loss?

  • Loss of Rs.662.40
  • Profit of Rs.662.40
  • Loss of Rs.642.80
  • Profit of Rs.642.80
  • None of these

102. The sum of six consecutive even numbers of Set A is 402. What is the sum of four consecutive numbers from another Set B whose lowest number is 15 less than double the lowest number of Set A?

  • 444
  • 442
  • 440
  • 446
  • None of these

103. The call rate of a SIM of Company A is one paisa for every three seconds. Another SIM of Company B charges 45 paise per minute. A man talked for 591 seconds from the SIM of Company A and 780 seconds from the SIM of Company B. What would be the total amount he spent?

  • Rs. 7.80
  • Rs 7.40
  • Rs. 7.46
  • Rs. 7.82
  • RS. 8.46

104. A 280-metre-long train moving with an average speed of 108 km/h crosses a platform in 12 seconds. A man crosses the same platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the man?

  • 5m/s
  • 8m/s
  • 12m/s
  • Cannot be determined
  • None of these

105. The ratio of the three angles of a quadrilateral is 13 : 9 : 5 . The value of the fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 36°. What is the difference between the largest and the second smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

  • 104°
  • 108°
  • 72°
  • 96°
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the following pie-chart and bar diagram and answer the following questions. Percentage-wise distribution of Students in six different Schools Total number of Students = 6000
Percentage of students

106-110

106. What is the sum of the number of girls in School C, the number of girls in School E and the number of boys in School D together?

  • 1700
  • 1900
  • 1600
  • 1800
  • None to these

107. What is the ratio of the number of boys in School C, the number of girls in School B and the total number of students in School E?

  • 45:7:97
  • 43:9:97
  • 45:7:87
  • 43:9:87
  • None of these

108. What is the difference between the total number of students in School F and the number of boys in School E?

  • 820
  • 860
  • 880
  • 900
  • None of these

109. In which of the following schools is the total number of students equal to the number of girls in School E?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • F

110. The number of girls in School A is approximately what percentage of the total number of students in School B?

  • 55
  • 50
  • 35
  • 45
  • 40

Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of athletes (in hundreds) who participated in a sports event from five different countries over the years
111-115

111. In which of the following years was the total number of participants (athletes) the second highest from Country C?

  • 2005
  • 2006
  • 2007
  • 2008
  • None of these

112. What was the average number of female athletes who participated from Country B over all the years together?

  • 200
  • 400
  • 600
  • 1800
  • 3600

113. What was the approximate percentage decrease in the number of male athletes who participated from Country C in the year 2007 as compared to the previous year?

  • 21
  • 30
  • 35
  • 39
  • 25

114. The number of female athletes who participated from Country E in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the total number of athletes who participated from Country B in the year 2008?

  • 40
  • 46
  • 50
  • 56
  • 60

115. In which of the following countries is the difference between the number of male and female participants second highest in the year 2006?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow. Number of trees planted by three different NGOs in five different states

116-120

116. In which of the following states was the total number of trees planted by NGO A and NGO B together second lowest?

  • Bihar
  • Punjab
  • Haryana
  • Assam
  • Tamil Nadu

117. What was the difference between the trees planted by NGO A in Haryana and the number of trees planted by NGO C in Tamil Nadu?

  • 90
  • 60
  • 120
  • 160
  • None of these

118. What was the average number of trees planted in Haryana by all the NGOs together?

  • 420
  • 140
  • 120
  • 390
  • None of these

119. The total number of trees planted by NGO A and NGO B together in Bihar was approximately what percentage of the total number of trees planted by NGO B and NGO C together in Punjab?

  • 85
  • 90
  • 105
  • 110
  • 95

120. What was the ratio of the number of trees planted by NGO B in Tamil Nadu, the number of trees by NGO C in Assam and the number of trees planted by NGO A in Assam?

  • 5 : 3 : 6
  • 5 : 6 : 3
  • 6 : 4 : 5
  • 6 : 5 : 3
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

In a ship there are 1200 passengers. 18 per cent of the total number of passengers are from Britain. Two-fifths of the total number of passengers are from South Africa. 6 per cent of the total number of passengers are from Madagascar. The remaining number of passengers are from India. 25 per cent of the number of passengers from Britain are females. Half the number of passengers from South Africa are males. There is no female passenger from Madagascar. Two-thirds of the number of passengers from India are females.

121. What is the ratio of the number of passengers from Madagascar, the number of female passengers from South Africa and the total number of passengers from India?

  • 2 : 5 : 18
  • 3 : 10 : 18
  • 3 : 11 : 18
  • 2 : 18 : 5
  • None of these

122. The number of male passengers from South Africa is approximately what percentage of the total number of passengers from Britain?

  • 111
  • 115
  • 120
  • 125
  • 131

123. What is the average number of male passengers from all the four countries?

  • 154.5
  • 164.5
  • 145 4
  • 164 5
  • None of these

124. What is the difference between the number of male passengers from Madagascar and the number of male passengers from India?

  • 64
  • 82
  • 74
  • 72
  • None of these

125. What is the total number of male passengers from Britain and female passengers from India together?

  • 340
  • 420
  • 350
  • 460
  • None these

Test-III: General Awareness

126. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Free Trade Agreement that India has done with many countries?
A. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sectors
B. For undertaking expansion of business
C To support technology up gradation

  • OnlyA&B
  • OnlyB&C
  • A11A,B&C
  • OnlyA&C
  • None of these

127. Which of the following organisations issues the rules of global trade?

  • World Bank
  • World Trade Organisation
  • Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
  • Directorate General of Foreign Trade
  • None of these

128. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and or business enterprise at a given point of time is called

  • Statement of product details
  • Reconciliation Statement
  • Balance Sheet
  • Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
  • Trading and manufacturing account

129. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates?

  • Reverse Repo Rate
  • Repo Rate
  • SLR
  • CRR
  • Savings Rate

130. The Reverse Mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of the society?

  • Govt employees
  • Senior citizens
  • Unemployed youth
  • War widows
  • None of these

131. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world?

  • Maximum
  • Medium
  • Mercantile
  • Mutual
  • Ministry

132. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts has been passed to prevent this activity?

  • Payment & Settlements Act
  • Banking Regulation Act
  • Negotiable Instruments Act
  • Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act

133. Which of the following organisations provides guarantee to the exporters?

  • Exim Bank.
  • Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
  • Director General Foreign Trade
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • Registrar of companies

134. Which of the following terms is not used in banking world?

  • Credit
  • Rate
  • Financial status
  • Discount
  • Absolute zero

135. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sector?

  • Internal Rate of Return
  • Internal Revaluation Reserve
  • Investment Reserve Ratio
  • Internal Risk Return
  • None of the above

136. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers?

  • CIBIL
  • ARCIL
  • SEBI
  • RBI
  • CCIL

137. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking?

A, To meet deposit withdrawal
B. To fund loan demands
C To maintain public confidence

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • Only C
  • Only A&B
  • Only B&C

138. According to the latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide the largest share to the Indian economy in the days to come?

  • Agriculture
  • Industry
  • Services
  • Exports
  • None of these

139. Which of the following groups represent key industries?

A. Crude oil, electricity
B. Petroleum refining and finished steel
C. Cement and coal

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • Only A&B
  • Only C
  • A11A,B&C

140. Which of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes

A. Insurance/health services
B. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
C. Money changers/legal services

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • Only C
  • Both A&C
  • A11A, B&C

141. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents?

  • Election Commission of India
  • Ministry of Foreign Affairs
  • Govt of Maharashtra
  • Border Security Force
  • None of these

142. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks?

  • Yes Bank
  • ICICI Bank
  • Citigroup
  • HSBC
  • State Bank of India

143. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called

  • Product Control
  • Product enhancement
  • Product marketing
  • Product enrichment
  • None of these

144. Banking and financial services all over the world are regulated usually by the Monetary Authority of the land.
Who controls this function in India?

Ministry of Finance

  • SEBI
  • RBI
  • IRDA
  • FEDAI

145. As per the guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of2000 by which year?

  • 2011
  • 2012
  • 2015
  • 2016
  • None of these

146. Which of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India?

  • 4.6 per cent of total budget
  • 4.6 per cent of GDP
  • 3.6 per cent of total budget
  • 3.6 per cent of GDP
  • None of these

147. FIMMDA stands for

  • Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
  • Fixed Income Money Markets & Derivatives Association
  • Fixed Income & Money Market Development Association
  • Floating Income & Money Markets Derivative Assets
  • None of these

148. On which of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt of India?

  • Corpora ie Governance
  • Fiscal deficit
  • Inflation
  • Governance deficit
  • None of these

149. Nobel laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which of the following countries?

  • Sri Lanka
  • Pakistan
  • Maldives
  • Bangladesh
  • None of these

150. Who is the author of the book Darkness at Noorfl

  • VSNaipaul
  • Chetan Bhagat
  • Arthur Koestler
  • Vikram Seth
  • None of these

151. For which of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India?

  • To provide better price to farmers
  • To improve the productivity of food crops
  • To control the prices of food items
  • To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
  • None of these

152. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking?

  • Debit Card
  • Credit Card
  • Kisan Card
  • ELISA Test
  • None of these

153. Which of the following is the reason owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items?

  • To get benefit from high international prices
  • To improve the tax collection targets
  • It is as per the international practices.
  • To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
  • None of these

154. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following states?

  • Orissa
  • AP
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Gujarat
  • West Bengal

155. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy?

A, To anchor inflation expectations
B. To actively manage liquidity
C To maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability

  • Only A
  • A11A, B&C
  • Both A& C
  • Only B
  • None of these

156. With which of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated?

  • Dance
  • Music
  • Short-story writing
  • Novels
  • None of these

157. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman?

  • Deregulation of primary markets
  • Deregulation of secondary markets
  • Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
  • Introduction of Base Rate
  • None of these

158. Who isKapilSibal?

  • Coal Minister of India
  • Civil Aviation Minister of India
  • Telecom Minister of India
  • Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
  • None of these

159. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks?

  • SIDBI
  • IB A
  • RBI
  • SBI
  • NABARD

160. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which of the following countries?

  • Libya
  • Bahrain
  • Yemen
  • Tunisia
  • None of these

161. What is Gross Domestic Product?

  • It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country.
  • It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year.
  • It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country.
  • It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year.
  • None of these

162. Which of the following metals is used for the generation of Nuclear Power?

  • Silver
  • Gold
  • Uranium
  • Copper
  • Barium

163. In which of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up?

  • Kerala
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Orissa
  • Bihar
  • None of these

164. In which of the following states, Niyamgiri Bauxite
Mining Project is proposed to be set?

  • Orissa
  • Jharkhand
  • West Bengal
  • Bihar
  • Chhattisgarh

165. Which of the following is NOT used in Economics?

  • Demand and Supply
  • Ad Valorem Tax
  • Break even
  • HIV-positive
  • Cost-benefit analysis

166. For which of the following reasons did the Finance Minister deny entry of NPJ funds for infra bonds?

  • It will bring in more liquidity in the country.
  • NRIs can withdraw their funds any time.
  • It will bring interest burden on the country.
  • It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian currency.
  • None of these

167. What is ‘financial inclusion’?
A. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
B. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneur
C Availability of basic financial products like insurance

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • Only
  • Both A&B
  • A11,B&C

168. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be the Vice Chairman of the joint commission to resolve  differences amongst the financial regulators?

  • Finance Minister, GOI
  • Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
  • Chairman, SEBI
  • Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
  • Governor, RBI

169. Which of the following terms is used in Economics?

  • Keynesian
  • Adsorption
  • Affinity Matrix
  • Gene Flow
  • None of these

170. Which of the following is the directive given to the Govt of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it?

  • To focus on financial consistency
  • To reduce fiscal deficit
  • To ensure GDP growth
  • To reduce revenue deficit
  • None of these

171. In which of the following states, Jangi-Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up?

  • J&K
  • HP
  • UP
  • Manipur
  • Meghalaya

172. Which of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law?

  • To provide 25 kg of food grains to ration card holders
  • To provide 25 kg of food grains to targeted beneficiaries
  • To provide 35 kg of food grains to ration card holders
  • To provide 35 kg of foodgrains to targeted beneficiaries.
  • None of these

173. Which of the following is/are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates?
A. Bank Rate and Repo Rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. CRR and SLR

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • A11A, B&C
  • Only C
  • Both A&C

174. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one-time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission?

  • Rs. 500
  • Rs. 600
  • Rs. 750
  • Rs. 1000
  • Rs. 1400

175. Which of the following rates signals the RBI’s long-term outlook on interest rates?

  • Repo Rate
  • Reverse Repo Rate
  • Bank Rate
  • SLR
  • CRR

176. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services?

  • Eligible financial services rendered by banks
  • Utility services provided by banks
  • Services provided through business correspondents
  • Services provided to armed force personnel
  • None of these

177. For which of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India?

  • The price of iron-ore exports is not competitive.
  • The iron-ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports.
  • The prices of iron-ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned.
  • Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved.
  • None of these

178. What is Cross Border Exchange?

  • Trading of foreign currency in India
  • Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/goods
  • Hawala transactions in Indian rupee
  • Unauthorized remittance of Indian rupee
  • None of these

179. What is Cartosat-2B?

  • It is an advanced remote sensing satellite built by ISRO.
  • It is a warhead developed by DRDO.
  • It is an educational project launched by UGC.
  • It is an advanced computer developed byllTKanpur.
  • None of these

180. For which of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews?
A. To re-align its policies
B. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
C. To provide guidance to the economy

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • Only C
  • A11A,B&C
  • None of these

181. Which of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council?

  • To address inter-regulatory issues only
  • To focus on financial literacy only
  • To focus on financial inclusion only
  • Both 1 &2
  • A111, 2&3

182. For which of the following reasons has the Planning Commission decided to convert itself into a System Reforms Commission?

  • It is to make people-to-people contacts.
  • It is to understand the problems of people.
  • It is to review the implementation of its policies.
  • It is aimed at changing the economic profile of the country.
  • None of these

183. Which of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10?

  • Manufacturing
  • Construction
  • Wholesale and Retail Trade
  • Financial Insurance, Real Estate
  • Civil Aviation

184. Which of the following is/are a renewable sources of energy?
A. Wind   B. Solar   C. Thermal

  • Only A
  • Only B
  • A11A, B&C
  • Only B & C
  • Only A & B

185. Expand the term SWIFT.

  • Society for Worldwide International Financial Telecommunications
  • Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications
  • Society for Worldwide International Financial Transfers
  • Society for Worldwide Interbank Fiscal
  • None of these

186. For which of the following reasons, NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers?

  • To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
  • To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
  • To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
  • To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
  • None of these

187. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the Banking work?

  • Holding Company
  • Post-dated cheque
  • Credit
  • Time deposit
  • Centripetal force

188. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat?

  • Up to Rs. 51 lakhs
  • Up to Rs. 10 lakhs
  • Up to Rs. 20 lakhs
  • Up to Rs. 50 lakhs
  • There is not such limit

189. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India?

  • Health service
  • Clean water
  • Primary education
  • Employment for 100 days
  • None of these

190. Some private organisations are running e-chaupals to help which of the following sections of the society?

  • Farmers
  • Small businessmen
  • Cooperative Credit Societies
  • School-going children
  • Unemployed youth

191. Which of the following is the currency of UAE?

  • Dirham
  • Dinar
  • Dollar
  • Take
  • Pound Sterling

192. Who among the following is the author of the book A Bend in the River?

  • Chetan Bhagat
  • VS Naipaul
  • Kiran Desai
  • Anita Desai
  • None of these

193. Which of the following terms is used in Cricket?

  • Love
  • Scoop
  • LBW
  • Tee
  • Back-hand drive

194. Which of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-2010?

  • 6.7
  • 9.2
  • 7.4
  • 9.7
  • None of these

195. Which of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis?

  • Ireland
  • Portugal
  • Rumania
  • Hungary
  • France

196. Which of the following schemes has been launched for school children?

  • Rajlakshmi
  • Kutir Jyoti
  • Mid Day Meal
  • Swajal Dhara
  • None of these

197. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low-income- group people are known as

  • Investment Loans
  • Micro Credit
  • Saving loans
  • Secured loans
  • Cash credit loans

198. Which of the following is the Central Bank of USA?

  • Federation of Banks, USA
  • Citigroup, USA
  • Bank of America
  • Central Bank of USA
  • Federal Reserve

199. Which of the following countries was the second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009?

  • USE
  • India
  • China
  • Germany
  • Russia

200. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called

  • Online Trading
  • Share Trading
  • Real estate investment
  • Corporate Trading
  • None of these

Test-IV: Computer Knowledge

201. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?

  • CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information.
  • CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do.
  • CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media.
  • All of these
  • None of these

202. A ________is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.

  • Bloog
  • hit
  • like
  • view
  • Succtia

203. The__________ is the term used to describe the window that is currently being used.

  • Web Window
  • Display Area
  • WordPad Window
  • Active Window
  • Monitor

204. CPU is an abbreviation for

  • Central Programming Unit
  • Central Processing Unit
  • Computer Processing Unit
  • Computer Protocol Unit
  • Central Protocol Unit

205. A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n)

  • microchip
  • macro chip
  • macro processor
  • calculator
  • software

206. Storage and memory differ with respect to which of the following characteristics?

  • Price
  • Reliability
  • Speed
  • All of these
  • None of these

207. What are the two examples of freeware?

  • WinZip and Linux
  • Shareware and file sharing
  • Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar
  • Instant messaging and the Google toolbar
  • Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel

208. Even if a disk drive fails, the computer application running and using it can continue processing. This application is said to have been designed with this feature called

  • 100 percent up-time
  • Fault tolerance
  • High reliability
  • All of these
  • None of these

209. What is e-commerce?

  • Buying and selling of international goods
  • Buying and selling of products and services over the Internet
  • Buying and selling of products and services not found in stores
  • Buying and selling of products having to do with computers
  • Buying and selling of electronic goods

210. What are the four things required to connect to the Internet?

  • Telephone line, Modem, Computer and an ISP
  • Modem, Computer, PDA and ISP
  • Telephone line, PDA, Modem and Computer
  • Computer, ISP, Modem and Communication software
  • Monitor, Keyboard, Mouse and Modem

211. Which of the following functions is’ not performed by servers?

  • Email processing
  • Database sharing
  • Processing Websites
  • Storage
  • Word processing

212. Which media has the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users more than once?

  • CD-R disks
  • CD-RW disks
  • Zip disks
  • Opti Disks
  • Both CD-RW disks and Zip disks

213. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called___________________

  • downloading
  • uploading
  • FTP
  • JPEG
  • downsizing

214. The________controls a client’s computer resources.

  • application program
  • instruction set
  • operating system
  • server application
  • compiler

215. To reload a Web page, press the________ button.

  • Redo
  • Reload
  • Restore
  • Ctrl
  • Refresh

216. Which of the following could be digital input devices for computers?

  • Digital camcorder
  • Microphone
  • Scanner
  • All of the above
  • None of these

217. The_______enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.

  • tab box
  • pop-up helper
  • tab row
  • address bar
  • Esc key

218. You can use the bar to type a URL and display a Web page, or type a keyword to display a list of related Web pages.

  • Menu
  • Title
  • Search
  • Web
  • Address

219. Storage media such as a CD read and write information__________using .

  • a laser beam of red light
  • magnetic dots
  • magnetic strips
  • All of these
  • None of these

220. Vendor-created program modifications are called ________.

  • patches
  • antiviruses
  • holes
  • fixes
  • overlaps

221. Cache and main memory will lose their contents when the power is off. They are________ .

  • dynamic
  • static
  • volatile
  • non-volatile
  • faulty

222. The collection of links throughout the Internet creates an interconnected network called the_________ .

  • WWW
  • Web
  • World Wide Web
  • All of the above
  • Wide Area Web

223. Every computer has a(n)_________ ; many also have

  • operating system; a client system
  • operating system; instruction sets
  • application programs; an operating system
  • application programs; a client system
  • operating system; application programs

224. Main memory works in conjunction with__________.

  • special function cards
  • Ram
  • CPC
  • Intel
  • All of these

225. A sales clerk at a checkout counter scanning a tag on an item rather than keying it into the system, is using

  • input automation
  • item data automation
  • scanning automation
  • source data automation
  • None of these

226. A(n)___________ is composed of several computers connected together to share resources and data.

  • Internet
  • Network
  • backbone
  • hyperlink
  • protocol

227. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/ information?

  • floppy diskette
  • hard disk
  • permanent disk
  • optical disk
  • None of these

228. Microsoft Office is an example of________ a .

  • closed-source software
  • open-source software
  • horizontal-market software
  • vertical-market software
  • compiler

229. A popular way to learn about computers without ever going to a classroom is called___________ .

  • i-learning
  • isolated learning
  • e-leaming
  • close learning
  • distance learning

230. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a____________ .

  • spammer
  • hacker
  • instant messenger
  • All of these
  • None of these

231. Which of the following is an example of storage devices?

  • Magnetic disk
  • Tapes
  • DVDs
  • All of these
  • None of these

232. The _ _ _ _ _ folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.

  • Inbox
  • Outbox
  • Drafts
  • Sent Items
  • Address Book

233. Which of the following is an example of an optical disk?

  • Digital versatile disks
  • Magnetic disks
  • Memory disks
  • Data bus disks
  • None of these

234. The main job of a CPU is to _______.

  • carry out program instructions
  • store data/information for future use
  • process data and information
  • Both(1) and (3)
  • None of these

235.___________ are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

  • Phishing trips
  • Computer viruses
  • Special function cards
  • Scanners
  • Keyboards

236. An example of a processing device would be __________.

  • a magnetic ink reader
  • a tablet PC
  • special function cards
  • scanners
  • keyboards

237. Which of the following is not a type of computer software which can be bought?

  • Off-the-shelf
  • Tailor-made
  • Custom-developed
  • Off-the-shelf with alterations
  • All of these can be purchased

238. You can use_____________ to copy selected text, and _____________to paste it in a document.

  • CTRL+C,CTRL + V
  • CTRL + C,CTRL + P
  • CTRL + S,CTRL + S
  • SHIFT + C,ALT + P
  • CTRL+D, CTRL+A

239. Video processors consist of___________ and____________ ,
which store and process images.

  • CPU, VGA
  • CPU, memory
  • VGA, memory
  • VGI,DVI
  • VGA,VGI

240. The main memory of a computer can also be called

  • Primary storage
  • Internal memory
  • Primary memory
  • All of these
  • None of these

241. Computer software can be defined as______________

  • the computer and its associated equipment.
  • the instructions that tell the computer what to do.
  • computer components that act to accomplish a goal.
  • an interface between the computer and the network.
  • the interaction between the computer and its database

242. When speaking of computer input and output, input refers to

  • any data processing that occurs from new data input into computer.
  • retrieval of data or information that has been entered into the computer.
  • data or information that has been entered into the computer.
  • the transmission of data that has been entered into the computer.
  • Both (3) and (4)

243. ______________A is a set of rules.

  • resource locator
  • domain
  • hypertext
  • URL
  • protocol

244. The connection between your computer at home and your local ISP is called________________ .

  • the last mile
  • the home stretch
  • the home page
  • the backbone
  • the vital mile

245. All of the logic and mathematical calculations done by the computer happen in/on the________________ .

  • system board
  • central control unit
  • central processing unit
  • mother board
  • memory

246. There are several primary categories of procedures. Which of the following is not a primary category of procedures?

  • Testing
  • Backup and recovery
  • Firewall development
  • Design
  • None of these

247. The operating system called UNIX is typically used for

  • Desktop computers
  • Laptop computers
  • Super computers
  • Web servers
  • All of these

248. The________ file    format is a method of encoding pictures on a computer.

  • HTML
  • JPEG
  • FTP
  • URL
  • DOC

249. Press___________ to move the insertion point to the Address box, or to highlight the URL in the Address box.

  • ALT+D
  • ALT+A
  • SHIFT+TAB
  • TAB+CTRL
  • CTRL+S

250. Computer systems are comprised of

  • hardware, programs, information, people and networks
  • hardware, software, procedures, networks, and people
  • hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
  • hardware, programs, processors, procedures, networks and people
  • hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people

Test-V: English Language

Directions (Q. 251-255): Rearrange the following six sentences (AX (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A. Ironically, the same parents who are considered to be ignorant are thought to be very enlightened in choosing private schools over state-run ones.
B. This is all the more reason why we should include them during the planning and implementation of the system.
C. This is apparent at every stage from policymaking to implementation as critical decisions are made without the participation of the stakeholders, an attitude that can only be described as either arrogance or indifference.
D. In reality, every parent decides which school is a good one, based on his/her own set of values, perceptions and aspirations.
E The root cause of most of the ills that plague our education system is the enormous distance that separates the power centres within the system and the schools where the action takes place.
K.  It is often said in defence of such an approach that poor parents are too ignorant to be partners in a meaningful dialogue.

251. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

252. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • F

253. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  • F
  • D
  • C
  • E
  • A

254. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

255. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

  • E
  • D
  • C
  • B
  • A

Directions (Q. 256-265): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Can an experiment conceived, carried out, and reported in kids-speak with pencil-coloured figures and hand-written tables by school children aged 8 to 10 years get published in a highly rated international journal following a peer-reviewing process? Twenty-seven schoolchildren from a primary school in UK have proved this is 256—if a simple but novel scientific question raised is 257 in a scientific way. Their paper was published in the Royal Society’s Biology Letters journal. Their 258 was that bumble-bees can use a “combination of colour and spatial relationships in deciding which colour of flower to forage from.” Considering that our understanding of how bees perceive coloured patterns and scenes is inadequate, this inspiring outcome has shown that schoolchildren guided by gifted teachers can think and 259 out experiments like
any hard-wired scientist. For these kids, doing science changed their 260 of the subject. Science also became “cool and fun.” This refreshing approach turns the spotlight on
the best methods of teaching science. The 261 learning system adopted by most schools in India, even classroom study combined with some laboratory work with pre-defined
outcomes, does very little to 262 curiosity and interest in science. Is that one of the 263 why out-of-the-box thinking that produces path-breaking science rarely comes out of
Indian laboratories? The children at the UK school had their gifted teacher to guide them. Scientists from India’s space and atomic energy departments and in some other places
where serious science is done can take a 264 out of the school’s book and 265 the way in engaging with school pupils and getting them to do real science.

256.

  • done
  • unlikely
  • potential
  • promising
  • possible

257.

  • questioned
  • said
  • retorted
  • answered
  • address

258.

  • question
  • finding
  • methodology
  • result
  • studies

259.

  • wage
  • create
  • execute
  • carry
  • attempt

260.

  • option
  • lives
  • visual
  • demands
  • perception

261.

  • revolutionary
  • radical
  • rote
  • adequate
  • bore

262.

  • stimulate
  • simulate
  • make
  • peek
  • judge

263.

  • cause
  • root
  • reasons
  • issues
  • sources

264.

  • thread
  • leaf
  • example
  • look
  • pages

265.

  • lead
  • start
  • deliver
  • paved
  • ahead

Directions (Q. 266-270): In each question below, a theme is partially presented in two sentences. The complete theme comprises four logically arranged sentences. Out of these four the middle two sentences are not given. Three possible fillers denoted by (A), (B) and (Q are given below the partially provided theme. You have to find out which two or none can fill the gap between the two given sentences in the proper order to make the theme complete. Study the five alternatives (answer choices) carefully and select one of them.

266. All our diverse experiences are manifestations of the mind________________ The quality of that action depends on whether your mind is disciplined or not.

A. The internal environment, the individual’s physical body, and the place where it abides, the external environment, arise through the force of action.
B. Depending on whether our mind is pacified or unruly, positive or negative, actions are committed.
C. This is why advice about reading someone’s body language is so important.

  • Only B and A respectively
  • Only C and A respectively
  • Only B and C respectively
  • Only A and B respectively
  • Only A and B or C respectively

267. People of India want more implementation, not more promises and plans_______.______.This is because the approach to implementation and skills required must suit what has to be done.
A. They want executives who can implement and institutions that can get things done.
B. Aligned plans are required to accelerate progress on many fronts in India.
C. But first we must understand what is to be implemented.

  • Only A and C respectively
  • Only B and C respectively
  • Only C and B respectively
  • Only B and A respectively
  • Only A and B respectively

268. The low and declining share of agriculture in the conomy means a drought in nearly a third of the country would
not have a significant impact on GDP growth__________.__________A big reversal in agriculture this year would, therefore, only knock off about half a percentage point from the GDP growth.
A. Human suffering is also going to be more.
B. The higher prices of farm produce will partly make up for the lower production of farmers.
C. Agriculture and allied activities have only 17% share in GDP.

  • Only A and B respectively
  • Only A and B or C respectively
  • Only A and C respectively
  • Only C and B respectively
  • Only B and A respectively

269. Information sharing plays a critical role in facilitating industrial processes __________.________. A strong distribution network in FMCG sector is essential to ensure that supplies reach retailers on time and in the right quantities, avoiding either over-supply or under-supply.
A. This sharing is the first step towards developing a high efficiency supply chain.
B. In the fast moving consumer goods (FMCG) sector,a company’s operations depend largely on the effectiveness and efficiency of its supply chain.
C. However, this is often one of the most focused industrial aspects, leading to demand forecasting and losses for the company.

  • Only B and A respectively
  • Only C and A respectively
  • Only B and A or C respectively
  • Only A and B respectively
  • None of these

270. Buying a new car is just like a dream come true__________. Timely maintenance increases its life, dependability and value.
A. A car depicts the personality of its owner.
B. Once bought, though, a car involves high investment.
C. Expenditure on car maintenance becomes imperative.

  • Only B and A respectively
  • Only B and C respectively
  • Only C and B respectively
  • Only C and A respectively
  • None of these

Directions (Q. 271-275): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

271. The sun has constantly been_________ and reappearing and that has got the temperature___________ over the past two days.

  • vanishing, control
  • hiding, fluctuating
  • appearing, soaring
  • going, unpredictable
  • disappearing, unusual

272. The teacher called upon the students to____________ interest in science and participate in various orientation programmes in order to_____________ their scientific skills.

  • take, learn
  • place, further
  • develop, hone
  • generate, mix
  • envision, share

273. The police commissioner may________ the state government to close five police stations__________ of poor infrastructure and bad location.

  • order, in the light
  • request, because
  • ask, reason
  • plead, due
  • command, in lieu

274. Over one lakh aspirants_________ their luck in various examinations_________ to the city on Sunday, which turned out to be a peaceful day.

  • trying, flocked
  • attempting, gathered
  • challenging, entered
  • seeing, ventured
  • planning, assembled

275. The singer certainly___________ up to the sky-high expectations of his audience by__ them with some of the biggest hits of his career.

  • lived, wooing
  • geared, attracting
  • summed, enticing
  • met, singing
  • stood, belting

Directions (Q. 276-285): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5.
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

276. The biggest(1) / health burden that India (2)/ is set to face in the coming years(3)/ is tackle cancer.(4) / No error(5)

277. Illegal sand mining in the peripheral areas(1)/ of the district continues to remain a big problem for(2)/ forest-range officers as yet another instance illegal(3)/ mining was reported yesterday.(4) / No error(5)

278. The policemen, who(1) / was deployed heavily(2) / in the area, did nothing to(3)/dissuade the protesters.(4) / No error(5)

279. Festivals are prime occasions(1) / for splurging on presents and owing to improved economic situation,(2) / the youths is gung-ho(3) / about breaking all previous records.(4)/ No error(5)

280. It is important to recruit personnel at (1)/ different levels in the organisation so that(2)/ the ensuing human resource gap is bridged (3)/ at least for the critical operations.(4)/ No error(5)

281. Banks are on the verge(1)/ of facing a formidable challenge(2)/of losing over fifty per cent of(3) / their employees due to retirement(4)/No error(5)

282. Not only has the commerce ministry fixed(1)/ extraordinarily high minimum prices for onion exports(2)/ but also made licences mandatory(3)/ for every consignment.(4)/ No error(5)

283. A new study found that while weight loss(1) / via surgery may improve knee pain, in obese patients (2)/ there may be  permanent damage to the knee(3) / from being severe
overweight.(4)/ No error(5)

284. In order to streamline (1)/ the movement of vehicles during(2)/ the festival, traffic police have(3) / chalked out diversion plans.(4)/No error(5)

285. With a view to avoid another caste conflict(1)/the administration has deployed additional police force(2)/ on the village, while the administration as well as police officials(3)/ are monitoring the situation.(4)/ No error(5)

Directions (Q. 286-300): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The price of gold has gone up from $256 an ounce in 2001 to $ 1,424. Meanwhile, price levels have struggled or crashed with respect to almost all other asset classes. Central banks have slashed interest rates. Yet, gold prices, it has been predicted, may go up and up. The many reasons for this renewed love are convincing. Interestingly, not long ago pundits had predicted the end of gold as the world’s default asset class and were
clubbing it with commodities. It appears that the yellow metal is making a comeback to reassert the pre-eminence it has enjoyed for 5,000 years of history.
Its supply is falling. No new mines have been discovered. The existing ones are getting exhausted, and miners are digging as deep as 5 km. Gold content in ore has come down from almost 12 gm a tonne to 2 gm. And it costs more and more to take that out. Environmental concerns have also contributed to mine owners’ problems. The wages of miners are going up; so is the cost of providing them safety and security.
Emerging economies such as China and India are accumulating gold: China has 1,054 tonnes and India 565 tonnes. No wonder, as emerging economic superpowers, China and India want to add to their reserves. Industrial use of gold is on the rise the world over. With the US economy still drifting with the threat of the dollar losing its undisputed position of reserve currency, the rush to gold is increasing.
Added to all this is the rekindled investor preference for gold. Money is moving away from mutual funds and equities and the once fashionable and often discredited hedge funds are also getting into gold. Exchange traded funds (ETFs) are channeling ever more funds to gold. Some pension funds are increasing the proportion of gold in their basket of assets. Given all this, gold can go nowhere but up. That is the consensus.
Everyone seems to be joining the new gold rush. But is everything well with gold? Or is it a bubble building up?
2^4 Consider the conventional wisdom. Money generally gets 4) i v » « « e ( j ) though not in any fixed proportion, among assets 265. 1) lead – t a t e stocks, cash, government securities, gold, 4) paved n(j m n e w investments in factories and
Directions (Q. 2«,0 s t a t e Qf equilibrium in a global economy, is partially presented i . ^ across geographical boundaries and comprises four logicall^ticipated gains. As long as the flow is four the middle two senteiv m ijne w j m the increase in returns, fillers denoted by (AX (B) and, everyone rushes to the same provided theme. You have to lfetrouble. Excess demand, though often artificial, creates excess supply, as in the case of real estate. Excess supply leads to price crashes.
Is something similar happening in gold? The general consensus is ‘no’. Gold is different. It has never let anyone down in 5,000 years. It is indestructible. Its supply is limited. The argument in the case of gold is that excess demand cannot create excess supply as the total world supply is limited. But this time it is different. Is it really so? Gold has also gone up and down in the past. It was $ 424 an ounce in 1990 before crashing to $255 in 2001. Still, it moves only within a range and huge fluctuations are not possible in gold, argue some people. Actually, gold gave much better returns in the 1980s, only to stagnate and lose those gains in the 1990s.
A crash of gold prices could be the ultimate crash, nothing like we have seen. No one has managed to discredit the yellow metal in 5,000 years. But it appears that for the first time in history the ETFs, the hedge funds and the governments are about to do the undoable. The fact that it has not already happened is no guarantee that it will not happen. Look at all the easy money coming into gold. All those who have shifted money from real estate, mutual funds, pension funds, hedge funds and stocks are pouring it into gold. Gold ETFs are the fastest growing investment vehicles today. This is all real quick money, but can evaporate at the click of a key. Of course, governments such as China and India are also betting on gold and increasing their reserves. But then whoever said governments can make no mistakes?
The intrinsic value of gold has not gone up from $255 to $1,424 in 10 years. Gold is not consumed heavily like oil or grain. Industrial use of gold is limited. Gold is the most recycled commodity. Of the annual production of2,500 tonnes, about 50 per cent goes to make jewellery and it is almost entirely recycled. The rest goes to industrial and other uses, and even here the recycling rate is high. In other words, all that demand is artificial
and can be deflated in no time. There is no need to have excess supply to lead to a price crash, unl ike other products. The sheer fact that gold is only a hedge instrument and does not serve an practical use by itself, will negate the ‘there-is-new-supply’ theory. Someone somewhere is watching for the perfect moment to disgorge the hoard, to create sudden panic and buy up following a crash.
There is no sign that a crash is going to come tomorrow, or for that matter next year or the year after. It may still go up for two or five or even 10 years. But crash it will, if we are to go by the economic history of boom and bust. Also, the higher it goes and the longer it stays there, the more painful the crash is going to be, especially for India. Indians sit on an estimated 18,000 tonnes. India has always had the largest gold reserve with individuals. Imagine what will happen to millions of Indians if gold were to crash. A crash of gold will be the crash of the Indian economy.
That should make us more responsible. That makes it imperative for our economists to track gold movement. That makes it important for our financial wizards to prevent a bubble in gold. That should force us to act before it happens. Never in history have we had so much idle money chasing so little gold.
Gold is losing its respect as the default and fail-safe asset class and becoming a speculative instrument. This shift of gold from being an item of passive wealth to an instrument of speculation is dangerous. Gold is being talked up by crafty speculators and unsuspecting governments. And these predictions are being made by those sitting on gold worth billions of dollars bought at yesterday’s prices.

286. Which of the following best explains ‘when everyone rushes to the same destination’ in the context of the passage?

  • Only real estate is invested in by a majority.
  • A majority invests in everything else except for gold.
  • Everyone wants to become rich at the same time.
  • Everyone rushes to the same place in order to buy gold.
  • Nothing else but pold is invested in by majority.

287. Which of the following is/are the general opinions about gold?
A Its supply, although limited, will be able to meet its demand.
B. The price of gold will keep on increasing.
C. It is the best investment at present.

  • Only A and C
  • only A and B
  • Only A
  • Only B and C
  • All A, B and C

288. What is the author’s opinion about investment in gold?

  • It should not be invested in at all.
  • China should invest more in gold in order to reduce its dependence on dollar.
  • It should be invested in sparingly.
  • It is the only lucrative investment for the future.
  • The government should invest more in gold instead of other assets.

289. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
A. Gold is being increasingly used for industrial purposes the world over.
B. India has lesser gold reserve as compared to US and China.
C. Countries like US and China have now stopped investing in gold for fear of its price crashing.

  • Only A and C
  • Only A and B
  • Only A
  • Only B and C
  • All A,B and C

290. What is the author’s fear with regard to gold?

  • Its limited supply will affect the operations of most industries in India.
  • Its surging demand will not be met with an adequate supply and will bring about a downturn in the Indian economy.
  • Its prices will suddenly dip which in turn will adversely affect many people in India.
  • It will become a commodity so highly priced that no Indian will be able to buy it.
  • None of these

291. Which of the following, according to the passage, is/are the reason/s for the increase in gold prices?
A, Failure in discovering new mines
B. Depleting content of gold in ores
C. Increase in the remuneration of miners

  • Only B
  • Only A and C
  • Only C
  • Only B and C
  • All A, B and C

292. Why, according to the author, is the demand for gold artificial?

  • Most gold that is used is also recycled and there is no need for fresh supply.
  • Industries demand gold for the purpose of stocking and do not actually use it for any process
  • The supply of gold is too little as compared to its demand thereby making it artificial
  • The amount of gold actually needed by industries and others is much lower and the amount quoted has been hyped by the government
  • None of these

293. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

  • Gold and its Uses
  • Government’s Investment in the Yellow Metal
  • Gold Consumption Worldwide
  • The Bubble Around the Yellow Metal
  • Investment in Gold Alone-The Way Ahead

Directions (Q. 294-297): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

294. Limited

  • Stopped
  • Finite
  • Incomplete
  • Partial
  • Narrow

295. Painful

  • Severe
  • Throbbing
  • Tender
  • Excruciating
  • Raw

296. Concerns

  • Relations
  • Distracters
  • Apprehensions
  • Organisations
  • Institutes

297. Consumed

  • Eaten
  • Used
  • Cleared-up
  • Put-away
  • Devoured

Directions (Q. 298-300): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

298. Exhausted

  • Started
  • Revitalize
  • Fresh
  • Replenished
  • Tired

299. Artificial

  • Genuine
  • Simulated
  • Unadulterated
  • False
  • Valid

300. Distributed

  • Assembled
  • Dispersed
  • Disbanded
  • Gets-together
  • Concentrated

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